What was the cooling history of the rock shown on the slide projected on the screen at the beginning of the test? (A) slow, (B) rapid, (C) very rapid, or (D) two stages of cooling.

Use the slide or overhead transparency to determine which metamorphic rock forms under the high-pressure, low-temperature conditions found in subduction zones? (A) greenschist, (B) hornfels, (C) blueschist, or (D) redschist.

Use the slide or overhead transparency to determine which metamorphic rock forms under the low-pressure, high-temperature conditions found in contact aureoles? (A) greenschist, (B) hornfels, (C) blueschist, or (D) eclogite.

What is the composition of the magma feeding the extrusive eruptions that built the landforms shown on the third slide projected on the screen? (A) ultra mafic, (B) mafic, (C) intermediate, or (D) felsic.

What type of volcano is shown on this slide? (A) shield volcano, (B) cinder cone, (C) composite cone, or (D) flood basalt.

Select the answer which lists these three disciplines in correct order:
the study of ancient life, the study of landforms, the study of rocks.
(A) Paleontology, Geomorphology, Petroleumology.
(B) Bioleontology, Geomorphology, Petrogeology.
(C) Bioleontology, Geoformology, Petrology.
(D) Paleontology, Geomorphology, Petrology.

Which best describes rocks? (A) they are static and never change, (B) they are studied by geographers, but not geologists, (C) they are dynamic and evolve over long periods of time, (D) they are dynamic and never change.

Which body of water in Uzbekistan was the 4^th largest lake in the world in 1965, but will become a dry desert unless either irrigation is reduced or climate changes before A.D. 2010? (A) Aral Sea, (B) Lake Baikal, (C) Caspian Sea, or (D) Dead Sea.

The basic types of rocks include (A) metamorphic, (B) sedimentary, (C) igneous, or (D) all of these.

Which statement best describes all rocks? (A) Rocks are stagnant, with no life history, (B) rocks form from congealed lava, (C) Rocks are dynamic on a time scale of millions of years, (D) The basic building block for a rock is the unit cell.

Which is a compositional layer on the planet Earth? (A) mantle, (B) crust, (C) core, or (D) all of the above.

Spreading centers, transform faults, and subduction zones occur at the margins of (A) plates, (B) dishes, (C) continents, or (D) asthenospheres.

Give the name of a bond produced by weak electrostatic attractions that arise from the distorted shape of certain ions or atoms? (A) ionic bonds, (B) metallic bonds, (C) covalent bonds, or (D) Van der Waals bonds.

Which is not a recognized physical property of minerals: (A) hardness, (B) lustre, (C) specific gravity, or (D) firmness.

A man wants to make an artificial substance that is very hard and can be used as a sanding abrasive. He succeeds and calls his company "Mineral Industries". What is wrong here? (A) It is impossible to synthesize a artificial substance. (B) It is impossible to synthesize a artificial substance without any cleavage. (C) It would be an organic substance. (D) Minerals are naturally occurring.

Which of the following elements is least abundant on earth?

(A) O, oxygen; (B) Si, silicon; (C) Fe, iron; or (D) Au, gold.

The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is called (A) an atom, (B) a quark, (C) a nucleus, or (D) a neutron.

There are three atoms of the same element in space. One has a positive valence (+1), one has a negative valence (-1), and the other has no charge (valence of 0). Suddenly they are hurled against a tight crystal lattice. Which atom would be most likely to collide with atoms making up the crystal lattice? (A) the atom with a positive valence, (B) the atom with the negative valence, (C) the one with a neutral charge, or (D) none of the above would be any more or less likely to collide.

What is the average specific gravity of most crustal minerals? (A) 1 to 2, (B) 2 to 4, (C) 4 to 8, or (D) 8 to 12.

A solid cohesive aggregate of grains of one or more mineral is called a (A) mineraloid, (B) compound, (C) clay, or (D) rock.

A tendency for a mineral to break along a plane of weakness is called that mineral's (A) cleavage, (B) fracture, (C) hardness, or (D) streak.

Which of the following groups has no crystalline structure: (A) oxides, (B) mineraloids, (C) silicates, or (D) carbonates?

The 3-dimensional arrangement of atoms within a mineral is known as the mineral's (A) atomic number, (B) atomic radii, (C) valence, or (D) crystal lattice.

The smallest unit of 3-dimensional arrangement in a mineral is the (A) unit cell, (B) crystal lattice, (C) valence, or (D) crystal form.

Which of the following terms should be used to describe the combining capacity of an atom is called (A) polarity, (B) attractivity, (C) valence, or (D) mineralogy.

A measure of mass divided by volume is: (A) Valence, (B) Luster, (C) Specific gravity, or (D) Weight.

The color of a mineral's powder is: (A) Luster, (B) Streak (C) Cleavage, or (D) Valence.

The study of rocks is called (A) geology, (B) petrology, (C) mineralogy, or (D) paleontology.

What are the most common elements in the whole earth? (A) iron and tin, (B), uranium and iron, (C) iron and oxygen, or (D) iron and aluminum.

What are the two most common elements in the earth's crust? (A) iron and nickel, (B) silicon and oxygen, (C) aluminum and iron, or (D) quartz and feldspar.

The first level of mineral classification is based on (A) color, (B) types of bonds, (C) chemical composition, or (D) cooling history.

Who first stated that angles between crystal faces are constant for a mineral, although the shape of the crystal may differ from sample to sample? (A) Mohs, (B) Bowen, (C) Steno, or (D) Strohs.

Which of the following is not part of the hardness scale? (A) quartz, (B) talc, (C) calcite, or (D) muscovite.

Loss of an electron from an ion will produce (A) a decrease in ionic radius, (B) an increase in ionic radius, (C) a covalent bond, or (D) a violation of Steno's Law.

What is the hardness of glass on the Moh's hardness scale? (A) 10, (B) 12, (C) 9, or (D) 5.5.

Ions within a single molecule share electrons in (A) covalent bonds, (B) metallic bonds, (C) van der Waals bonds, or (D) ionic bonds.

Ions within a single molecule share electrons in (A) ionic bonds, (B) covalent bonds, (C) metallic bonds, or (D) van der Waals bonds.

Amazing color displays can be seen when the microscopic study of rocks involves (A) viewing of thin sections with polarized light, (B) special high-temperature microscopes, (C) electron microscopes, (D) viewing of polished slabs under reflected light.

If you were to conduct a lab experiment in which you powdered fragments of andesite, heated the powder above the melting point for all of its minerals, then allowed the melt to cool very, very slowly (1000's of years or longer), what igneous rock would you make? (A) rhyolite, (B) granite, (C) gabbro, or (D) diorite?

If you were to conduct a lab experiment in which you powdered fragments of basalt, heated the powder above the melting point for all of its minerals, then allowed the melt to cool very, very slowly (1000's of years or longer), what igneous rock would you make? (A) rhyolite, (B) granite, (C) gabbro, or (D) diorite?

If you were to conduct a lab experiment in which you powdered fragments of granite, heated the powder above the melting point for all of its minerals, then allowed the melt to cool very, very slowly (1000's of years or longer), what igneous rock would you make? (A) rhyolite, (B) granite, (C) gabbro, or (D) diorite?

Which rock would you expect to weather most rapidly? (A) rhyolite, (B) granite, (C) gabbro, or (D) diorite?

Which rock would you expect to weather most rapidly? (A) andesite, (B) granite, (C) gabbro, or (D) diorite?

Where would olivine crystals be the most easily weathered? (A) Sahara Desert, (B) Greenland, (C) the earth's mantle, or (D) Amazon rain forest.

Which rock would you expect to weather most slowly? (A) basalt, (B) granite, (C) gabbro, or (D) diorite?

Which rock has undergone the most rapid cooling? (A) granite,(B) gabbro, (C) rhyolite, or (D) obsidian.

Which of the following might you find in a magma chamber: (A) molten rock, (B) aqueous solutions of sulfides, (C) gasses, such as carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide, or (D) all of these.

What minerals would you expect in a light-colored, aphanitic igneous rock? (A) quartz and orthoclase, (B) olivine and pryoxene, (C) calcite and dolomite, or (D) amphibole and calcium plagioclase.

What minerals would you expect in a light-colored, phaneritic igneous rock? (A) quartz and orthoclase, (B) olivine and pryoxene, (C) calcite and dolomite, or (D) amphibole and calcium plagioclase.

What minerals would you expect in a dark-colored, aphanitic igneous rock? (A) quartz and orthoclase, (B) quartz and calcite, (C) calcite and dolomite, or (D) pryoxene and calcium plagioclase.

What minerals would you expect in a dark-colored, phaneritic igneous rock? (A) quartz and orthoclase, (B) quartz and calcite, (C) calcite and dolomite, or (D) pryoxene and calcium plagioclase.

What aspect of an igneous rock tells you the most about its cooling history? (A) chemical composition, (B) types of minerals present, (C) color, or (D) crystal size (texture).

Which of the following is not a type of magma? (A) mafic, (B) intermediate, (C) ultra-felsic, or (D) felsic.

Which rock has the same composition as basalt, but a different texture? (A) amphibole, (B) biotite, (C) calcium plagioclase, or (D) gabbro.

Which type of pluton is made of sedimentary rock? (A) batholith, (B) dike, (C) sill, or (D) none of these choices.

Mafic eruptions from a large fissure will produce (A) flood basalts, (B) plug domes, (C) strato-volcanos, or (D) shield volcanos.

Strato-volcanoes are also called (A) composite cones, (B) cinder cones, (C) shield volcanoes, or (D) spatter cones.

Which volcanic landforms generally will have the steepest slopes? (A) strato-volcanos, (B) shield volcanoes, (C) flood basalts, or (D) basalt volcanoes, like those in Hawaii.

A volcano erupts and extrudes viscous lava, followed by an explosive eruption of pyroclastics. What is the composition of the magma in the volcano? (A) basaltic, (B) ultramafic, (C) andesitic, or (D) mafic.

Mt. St. Helens is which type of volcano? (A) cinder cone, (B) composite cone, (C) flood basalt, or (D) shield volcano.

Which rocks are rich in potassium? (A) felsic rocks, (B) granites and rhyolites, (C) felsic rocks, or (D) all of the above.

Which rocks are rich in iron? (A) mafic rocks, (B) granites and rhyolites, (C) felsic rocks, or (D) all of the above.

Which mineral has the greatest density? (A) quartz, (B) biotite, (C) amphibole, or (D) olivine.

Which mineral has the least density? (A) quartz, (B) biotite, (C) amphibole, or (D) olivine.

A dike is a (A) discordant pluton, (B) tabular concordant pluton, (C) old, unusual sedimentary rock, or (D) batholith.

A sill is a (A) discordant pluton, (B) tabular concordant pluton, (C) old, unusual sedimentary rock, or (D) batholith.

What type of pluton is emplaced by stoping? (A) sill, (B) dike, (C) batholith, or (D) lopolith.

Which of the following studied how the earth produces a wide variety of igneous rocks? (A) Mohs, (B) Richter, (C) Bowen, or (D) Mercalli.

Which mineral has the greatest density? (A) biotite, (B) quartz, (C) olivine, or (D) amphibole.

Which of the following interferes with the reaction between a mineral and the magma it crystallized from? (A) gravity settling, (B) Bowen's reaction series, (C) slow cooling, or (D) polymorphism.

If a felsic magma was stoping upward into a peridotite country rock, then the composition of the magma would probably become richer in (A) iron, magnesium, and calcium; (B) potassium; (C) silicon, oxygen, and aluminum; or (D) greywacke and sillimanite.

Rhyolite can be characterized as (A) felsic and aphanitic, or (B) felsic and mafic, (C) felsic and phaneritic, or (D) felsic and sedimentary.

The process by which felsic rocks may be generated from mafic magmas is (A) felsification, (B) acidification, (C) cyclogonesis, or (D) fractional crystalization.

Granite can be characterized as (A) felsic and aphanitic, (B) felsic and mafic, (C) felsic and phaneritic, or (D) felsic and sedimentary.

Gabbro can be characterized as (A) mafic and aphanitic, (B) felsic and mafic, (C) mafic and phaneritic, or (D) felsic and sedimentary.

Basaltic lavas at the ocean bottom are likely to form (A) aa, (B) pahoehoe, (C) pillow basalts, or (D) ignimbrites.

The phaneritic rock with the same composition as andesite is (A) granite, (B) diorite, (C) gabbro, or (D) periodotite.

The phaneritic rock with the same composition as basalt is (A) granite, (B) diorite, (C) gabbro, or (D) periodotite.

The phaneritic rock with the same composition as rhyolite is (A) granite, (B) diorite, (C) gabbro, or (D) periodotite.

What is the first mineral formed from a cooling magma according to Bowen's reaction series? (A) quartz, (B) muscovite, (C) pyroxene, or (D) olivine.

What is the correct order of crystallization in a cooling magma?

High temperature - - - - - - - - - - - Low temperature
(A) Olivine ----------> Quartz -------------> Muscovite
(B) Plagioclase ------> Muscovite ----------> Amphibole
(C) Olivine ----------> Orthoclase ---------> Quartz
(D) Quartz -----------> Pryoxene -----------> Olivine

What is the source of geothermal heat? (A) the sun, (B) photosynthesis, (C) radioactive decay within the earth, or (D) none of the above.

Which rock type is missing from the igneous rock classification table shown below?         See Lecture slides for the table!(A) granite, (B) limestone, (C) scoria, or (D) peridotite.

Name one way a mafic magma can become more felsic in composition. (A) fractional crystalization, (B) stoping of a peridotite, (C) stoping of an olivine-bearing rock, or (D) stoping of a rock rich in Ca, Fe, & Mg.

What is a pegmatite? (A) a xenolith, (B) a chill zone rock, (C) a coarse-grained sandstone, or (D) a coarse grained igneous rock.

Give the name of a variation of a sill that bends the overlying rocks into a dome: (A) batholith, (B) xenolith, (C) lapilli, or (D) laccolith.

A igneous rock made of abnormally large crystals, such as orthoclase feldspar, sodium-plagioclase feldspar, and quartz, is called (A) conglomerate, (B) rhyolite, (C) pillow basalt, or (D) pegmatite.

Pahoehoe and aa are characteristic of (A) felsic lavas, (B) mafic lavas, (C) intrusive lavas, or (D) sedimentary rocks.

Which sediments pictured in the book are most similar in texture and sorting? (Hint: ignore color when looking at the photographs) (A) tillites and mudflows, (B) tillites and beach sand (like the St. Peter Sandstone), (C) turbidites and tillites, or (D) volcanic ash from Mt. St. Helens and Gowganda Tillite.

Which sediment shown in chapter 4 is angular because of crushing and abrasion during transport? (A) beach sand (like the St. Peter Sandstone), (B) wind-transported grains from Libya, (C) sand from the bed of a Swiss glacier, or (D) all of these sediments.

Where might you expect to find well-rounded sediments in the U.S.? (A) a beach on the Atlantic Ocean, (B) glacial deposits in the Rocky mountains, (C) landslide deposits in West Virginia, or (D) pryoclastic debris from Mt. St. Helens.

Which mineral might you expect to be abundant in a biochemical sedimentary rock? (A) olivine, (B) kyanite, (C) garnet, or (D) calcite.

The Swedish term for pair of sedimentary layers deposited over a cycle of a single year is (A) mohs, (B) pegmatite, (C) diamict, or (D) varve.

Where would one expect to find pelagic ooze? (A) in a magma chamber, (B) on the continental shelf, (C) in swamps, or (D) in the deep sea.

Graded bedding is likely to be deposited by (A) turbidity currents, (B) wind-blown sand, (C) peat compaction, or (D) stoping.

A sandstone that is more than 95% quartz is called a (A) arkose, (B) greywacke, (C) quartz sandstone, or (D) dirty sandstone.

A sandstone that is more than 95% metamorphic rock fragments is called a (A) arkose, (B) greywacke, (C) quartz sandstone, or (D) dirty sandstone.

A sandstone that is more than 95% feldspar is called a (A) arkose, (B) greywacke, (C) quartz sandstone, or (D) dirty sandstone.

Bituminous coal forms from (A) shale, (B) anthracite coal, (C) coke, or (D) lignite.

Which might you expect to find in a biochemical sedimentary rock? (A) fecal pellets, (B) worm burrows, (C) fossils, or (D) all of these.

Which might you expect to find in a biochemical sedimentary rock? (A) fossils, (B) porphryoblasts, (C) phenocrysts, or (D) foliated texture.

Which mineral might you expect to find in a biochemical sedimentary rock? (A) olivine, (B) sillimanite, (C) graphite, or (D) aragonite.

Limestone is a (A) biochemical sedimentary rock, (B) clastic igneous rock, (C) clastic sedimentary rock, or (D) chemical igneous rock.

Gypsum is a (A) phaneritic rock, (B) clastic sedimentary rock, (C) metamorphic rock, or (D) chemical sedimentary rock.

Dolomite is a (A) phaneritic rock, (B) clastic sedimentary rock, (C) metamorphic rock, or (D) chemical sedimentary rock.

Sandstone is a (A) phaneritic rock, (B) clastic sedimentary rock, (C) igneous rock, or (D) chemical sedimentary rock.

Which of the following components in the rock cycle is unlikely to be a source of sediments (A) magma, (B) igneous rocks, (C) sedimentary rocks, or (D) metamorphic rocks.

Physical weathering can be described as (A) rock decay, (B) erosion, (C) transportation of detritus, or (D) rock disintegration.

Which is the most stable at earth surface pressures and temperatures? (A) an olivine-rich dunite, (B) plagioclase, (C) quartz, or (D) orthoclase.

Which is the most stable at earth surface pressures and temperatures? (A) amphibole, (B) biotite, (C) quartz, or (D) muscovite.

Grus forms from the weathering of (A) basalt, (B) sandstone, (C) kaolinite, or (D) granite.

Weathering of orthoclase feldspar produces (A) kaolinite & ions in solution, (B) acid rain, (C) calcium plagioclase feldspar, or (D) none of these.

What is mud? (A) sand and silt, (B) sand and clay, (C) clay only, or (D) silt and clay.

Rock salt (rock halite) is (A) an igneous rock, (B) a chemical sedimentary rock, (C) a clastic sedimentary rock, or (D) a silicate.

Mg-rich sea water migrating through limestone may interact with calcite to form (A) halite, (B) diorite, (C) sandstone, or (D) dolomite.

Bituminous coal forms from (A) lignite, (B) anthracite coal, (C) coke, or (D) shale.

Trace fossils generally occur in (A) granite, (B) gabbro, (C) sedimentary rocks, or (D) high-grade metamorphic rocks.

Particle size is usually measured (A) along the long axis, (B) along the intermediate axis, or (C) along the short axis.

As sediments are transported downstream away from their source (A) they are subducted, (B) they become less mature, (C) they tend to become better sorted, or (D) they tend to become more angular.

Which is a sedimentary rock?(A) gabbro, (B) peridotite, (C) skarn, or (D) shale.

The solid material that precipitates in the pore space and binds a sedimentary rock together is called (A) conglomerate, (B) breccia, (C) cement, or (D) covalent bonds.

The solid material precipitates in the void spaces and binds the sedimentary rock together is called (A) matrix, (B) cement, (C) porosity, or (D) coquina.

Which is the largest grain size? (A) sand, (B) clay, (C) gravel, or (D) silt?

Which is not composed of sand-sized particles? (A) shale, (B) greywacke, (C) arkose, or (D) dirty sandstone.

Ripple marks are (A) trace fossils, (B) volcanic flow structures, (C) sedimentary structures, or (D) always Fe rich.

Travertine is a (A) phaneritic rock, (B) clastic sedimentary rock, (C) metamorphic rock, or (D) chemical sedimentary rock.

Which of the following is not a class of sedimentary rocks (A) metasomatic, (B) clastic, (C) detrital, or (D) chemical.

Oil and gas are mostly likely to be found in (A) granite, (B) obsidian, (C) chlorite schist, or (D) dirty sandstone.

Which sedimentary structure shows paleo-current direction (A) cross-bedding, (B) asymmetrical ripples, (C) flute casts, or (D) all 3 show paleocurrent direction.

Which sedimentary structure shows paleo-current direction (A) cross-bedding, (B) rain-drop imprints, (C) mud cracks, or (D) all 3 show paleocurrent direction.

Where is the largest known petroleum reserve? (A) Alaska, (B) West Virginia, (C) Venezuela, or (D) Persian Gulf.

What is the long-term outlook for Persian Gulf petroleum reserves? (A) the oil is being renewed as fast as it is being used, (B) the reserves are so great that humankind will never be able to use it all, (C) they will decline in importance as continued exploitation will cause the resource to diminish, (D) Persian Gulf reserves have always been minor, and our inordinate concern for the region is purely political.

What sort of deformation is likely to occur when a brittle, coarse-grained rock, such as granite, is shattered and pulverized by intense differential stresses? (A) migmatization, (B) stoping, (C) cataclastic metamorphism, or (D) contact metamorphism.

What sort of rock is likely to occur when a plastic, fine-grained rock, such schist, is sheared while at the partial melting temperature for that rock? (A) migmatite, (B) stoping breccia, (C) cataclastite, or (D) chert.

How do biotite crystals grow during regional metamorphism? (A) they never grow at all, (B) they grow parallel to confining pressures, (C) they grow perpendicular to confining pressures, (D) they grow according to Bowen's reaction series.

What can a geologist use to determine paleo-temperatures in ancient metamorphic rocks? (A) index minerals, (B) rock fabric, (C) trace elements, or (D) modern geothermal temperature gradients.

Which of the following requires great heat and pressure? (A) diagenesis, (B) contact metamorphism, (C) regional metamorphism, (D) normal faulting.

Which is least involved in metamorphism? (A) atmospheric agents, (B) chemically active fluids, (C) heat, or (D) pressure.

Which is most involved in metamorphism? (A) atmospheric agents, (B) chemically active fluids, (C) volcanism, or (D) diagenesis.

A large crystal surrounded by matrix in a metamorphic rock is called a (A) phenoblast, (B) porphyroblast, (C) xenolith, or (D) porphyrocryst.

Which mineral is indicative of low metamorphic grade? (A) chlorite, (B) sillimanite, (C) kyanite, or (D) garnet.

Which is the highest metamorphic grade indicator? (A) kyanite, (B) biotite, (C) chlorite, or (D) garnet.

Diagenesis occurs (A) at higher temperatures and pressures than metamorphism, (B) at lower temperatures and pressures than metamorphism, (C) in mafic plutons, or (D) in felsic plutons.

Metamorphic rocks can form from: (A) Sedimentary rocks, (B) Igneous rocks, (C) Other metamorphic rocks, or (D) All of the above.

What sort of metamorphism would convert a sillimanite schist into a garnet schist? (A) normal regional metamorphism, (B) normal contact metamorphism, (C) retrograde metamorphism, or (D) diagenesis.

Which mineral alteration would occur in retrograde metamorphism? (a) chlorite to biotite, (B) kyanite to sillimanite, (C) chlorite to garnet, or (D) garnet to biotite.

Pressure applied unequally to the surfaces of a body is called (A) confining pressure, (B) static pressure, (C) weight, or (D) directed (or dynamic) pressure.

Which is not a metamorphic index mineral? (A) calcite, (B) orthoclase, (C) muscovite, or (D) all of the above.

Which rock probably has undergone the most intense metamorphism? (A) schist, (B) phyllite, (C) gneiss, or (D) slate.

Which rock may be the product of contact metamorphism? (A) schist, (B) phyllite, (C) slate, or (D) marble.

A schist containing chlorite, biotite, and garnet is considered (A) chlorite grade, (B) biotite grade, (C) garnet grade, or (D) high metamorphic grade.

Pressure applied equally on all surfaces of a body is called (A) confining (or static) pressure, (B) shear stress, (C) slaty cleavage pressure, or (D) directed (or dynamic) pressure.

Extreme pressures in metamorphism leads to the development of (A) granular textures, (B) foliated textures, (C) phaneritic textures, or (D) aphanitic textures.

Which type of metamorphism occurs along a rapidly subducted plate? (A) amphibolite facies, (B) greenschist facies, (C) contact, or (D) blueschist facies.

Which of the following is an essential prerequisite for metasomatism? (A) metasomes, (B) metasomites, (C) very high pressures, (D) ions in solutions.

Which metamorphic rock forms under the high-pressure, low-temperature conditions found in subduction zones? (A) greenschist, (B) hornfels, (C) blueschist, or (D) redschist.

Which metamorphic rock forms under the high-pressure, high-temperature conditions found in deeply buried continental crust with a normal geothermal gradient? (A) greenschist, (B) hornfels, (C) blueschist, or (D) redschist.

Which metamorphic rock forms under the low-pressure, high-temperature conditions found in contact aureoles? (A) greenschist, (B) hornfels, (C) blueschist, or (D) eclogite.

What is slaty cleavage in metamorphic rocks? (A) a tendency to break irregularly, (B) a very thin mafic sill, (C) breakage along plate-like foliation planes in fine grained low-grade rocks (, or (D) a concentration of quartz in a gneiss.

Rubies and sapphires are varieties of (A) apatite, (B) beryl, (C) corundum, or (D) diamond.

Diamond, not graphite, forms naturally (A) at temperatures over 3000^oC, (B) at higher temperatures when depth decreases, (C) at higher temperatures when pressures increase, (D) less than 50 km depth.

What is wrong with the cartoon that follows? (A) Humans did not live at the same time as mammoths. (B) Humans did not live at the same time as dinosaurs. (C) Volcanoes did not exist during the Ice Age, when mammoths lived. (D) Dinosaurs and mammoths lived long before humans appeared on the earth.

How old is SS - 5 (sandstone number 5) in the geologic cross-section? (A) older than 510 million years, (B) between 510 million and 430 million years, (C) between 430 million and 307 million years, or (D) younger than 307 million years.

What is wrong with the cartoon that follows? (A) Humans did not live at the same time as mammoths. (B) Volcanoes did not exist during the Ice Age, when mammoths lived. (C) Mammoths did not live at the same time as dinosaurs. (D) Dinosaurs and mammoths lived long before humans appeared on the earth.

The basic unit used in designation of rock stratigraphy is the (A) contact, (B) facies, (C) batholith, or (D) formation.

A stratum, or collection of strata, distinctive enough on the basis of physical properties to constitute a distinctive, recognizable unit for geologic mapping, is called (A) contact, (B) facies, (C) batholith, or (D) formation.

Which is the earliest geologic period (A) Triassic, (B) Permian, (C) Cambrian, or (D) Tertiary.

Jurassic, Triassic, and Cretaceous are periods within the (A) Paleozoic, (B) Mesozoic, (C) Cenozoic, or (D) Quaternary.

Cambrian, Silurian, and Permian are periods within the (A) Paleozoic, (B) Mesozoic, (C) Cenozoic, or (D) Quaternary.

The Tertiary Period occurs during the (A) Paleozoic, (B) Mesozoic, (C) Cenozoic, or (D) Quaternary.

Which era began 570 million years ago? (A) Paleozoic, (B) Mesozoic, (C) Cenozoic, or (D) Precambrian.

If you plotted all of geologic time on a time line that was as long as the circumference of the Earth (25,000 miles or 40,000 kilometers), what distance would represent 1 semester (4 months)? (A) 3.0 miles (4.8 km), (B) 1/8 inch (0.3 cm), (C) 0.6 miles (1.0 km), or (D) 2 feet (65 cm).

If you plotted all of geologic time on a time line that was as long as the circumference of the Earth (25,000 miles or 40,000 kilometers), what distance would represent 75 years? (A) 3.0 miles (4.8 km), (B) 2.2 miles (3.5 km), (C) 0.6 miles (1.0 km), or (D) 2 feet (65 cm).

If you plotted all of geologic time on a time line that was as long as the circumference of the Earth (25,000 miles or 40,000 kilometers), what distance would represent 1 year? (A) 3.0 miles (4.8 km), (B) 6 miles (10 km), (C) 3/8 inch (0.9 cm), or (D) 2 feet (65 cm).

How old is the universe? (A) 8 to 12 billion years, (B) 4.5 billion years, (C) 2.0 billion years, or (D) 700 million years.

How old is the Earth? (A) 8 to 12 billion years, (B) 4.5 to 4.6 billion years, (C) 1.8 to 2.0 billion years, or (D) 650 to 700 million years.

Which of the following is not a period on the geologic time scale? (A) Virginian, (B) Pennsylvanian, (C) Mississippian, or (D) Tertiary.

Which of the following is not a period in the Paleozoic Era? (A) Ordovician, (B) Pennsylvanian, (C) Mississippian, or (D) Tertiary.

Which of the following is not a period in the Mesozoic Era?

(A) Jurassic, (B) Triassic, (C) Cambrian, or (D) Cretaceous.
Which came first? (A) Paleozoic, (B) Cenozoic, (C) Mesozoic, or (D) Proterozoic.

How old are the oldest rocks in which large fossils are common?
(A) Paleozoic, (B) Cenozoic, (C) Mesozoic, or (D) Proterozoic.

How old are the oldest rocks in which large fossils are common?
(A) 10,000 years, (B) 66 m.y., (C) 245 m.y., or (D) 570 m.y.

Which of the following dating tools determine absolute ages of rocks? (A) fossil assemblages, (B) faunal succession, (C) superposition, or (D) radiometric dating.

The principle of uniformitarianism can be paraphrased into the which of the following: (A) the present is the key to the past, (B) the past is the key to the present, (C) the Earth is the same today as it was 1 billion years ago, or (D) the Earth's crust has been disrupted by moving plates.

Which principle or law allows geologists to use fossils as relative dating tools? (A) law of superposition, (B) principle of faunal succession, (C) law of universal catastrophism, (D) principle of uniformitarianism.

A body of rock of considerable thickness with recognizable unity or similarity that makes it distinguishable from adjacent rock units is called a (A) pluton, (B) contract, (C) formation, or (D) source area.

Which of the following dating tools is useful in establishing the absolute age of fossils of organisms that have died in the last 40,000 years? (A) carbon-14, (B) uranium-238, (C) oxygen-16, or (D) strontium-90.

Which concept has been stated "the present is the key to the past"? (A) law of superposition, (B) principle of faunal succession, (C) law of universal catastrophism, or (D) principle of uniformitarianism.

According to paleontologists, which event occurred first? (A) Age of Mammals, (B) Age of Reptiles, (C) appearance of hard-shelled organisms, or (D) development of sexual reproduction.

What sedimentary structure might help geologist determine whether folded strata are normal or overturned? (A) cross-bedding, (B) ripple marks, (C) graded bedding, or (D) all of these.

Thermoremnant magnetism develops in many igneous rocks. The magnetic minerals in the igneous rocks will be aligned parallel to (A) the earth's magnetic field on the day that the rock sample was collected, (B) the earth's magnetic field at the time the rock first solidified, (C) the earth's magnetic field at the time the rock cooled below the Curie point (500^oC for magnetite), or (D) the atomic magnets of non-magnetic minerals in the rock.

Thermoremnant magnetism occurs in many igneous rocks. What indirect dating tool was developed after a series of these igneous rocks was dated using ⁴⁰K/⁴⁰Ar methods? (A) ¹⁴C dating, (B) the geologic time scale, (C) the principle of uniform magnetivity, or (D) the polarity-reversal time scale.

Which is the larger (and usually longer) subdivision of geologic time? (A) eon, (B) era, (C) period, or (D) epoch?

Which is the smaller (and usually shorter) subdivision of geologic time? (A) eon, (B) era, (C) period, or (D) epoch?

Given the following: Sandstone A overlies Sandstone B; Sandstone B overlies Basalt Flow C; Andesite D is intruded into Sandstone A. Which is the youngest rock? (A) Sandstone A, (B) Sandstone B, (C) Basalt Flow C, or (D) Andesite D.

Given these rocks: Sandstone A overlies Sandstone B; Sandstone B overlies Basalt Flow C; Andesite D is intruded into Sandstone A. Despite weeks of field work, you can not find an outcrop in which both units C and D occur, but you must write the geological history of the area. Which igneous rock is older? (A) You can't tell with out more information, (B) Sandstone B, (C) Basalt Flow C, or (D) Andesite D.

Given the following: Sandstone A overlies Sandstone B; Sandstone B overlies Basalt Flow C; Andesite D is intruded into Sandstone A. Andesite D is ⁴⁰K/⁴⁰Ar dated as being 350 million years old, whereas the basalt is dated 368 million years old. How old is Sandstone B? (A) younger than Sandstone A, (B) less than 350 million years, (C) more than 368 million years, or (D) between 368 and 350 million years.

Given the following: Sandstone A overlies Granite B; Sandstone A also overlies Basalt Flow C; Andesite D is intruded into Sandstone A. ⁴⁰K/⁴⁰Ar dating shows Andesite D is 390 million years old (Ma), the basalt is 468 Ma, and the granite is 1200 Ma. How old is Sandstone A? (A) Less than 390 Ma, (B) between 390 and 468 Ma, (C) between 468 and 1200 Ma, or (D) older than 1200 Ma.

A sandstone overlies a granite gneiss. What occurs at the contact (boundary) between the two rocks? (A) an unconformity, (B) a nonconformity, (C) the physical expression of a major hiatus, or (D) all of these.

A chron is (A) a mineral, (B) an element, (C) a subunit of a formation, or (D) a time interval defined by remnant rock magnetism.

Chrons are determined by (A) magnetic pole reversals, (B) fossil extinctions, (C) sedimentary structures, or (D) chron is not a geological term (Dr. Kite must be trying to mess with your mind!).

What is the term for buried erosion surface that separates strata with different orientations of bedding? (A) angular unconformity, (B) disconformity, (C) nonconformity, or (D) epoch.

What is this significance of an angular unconformity? (A) there was an episode of deposition between the formation of rocks on either side of the unconformity, (B) the lower strata were metamorphosed before the upper strata formed, (C) the lower strata were tilted or folded before the upper strata formed, or (D) the upper lower strata were tilted or folded before the lower strata formed.

The world's deepest drill hole is located (A) 5 km south of Fargo, North Dakota, (B) Bingham Copper Mine, Arizona, (C) in the North Sea, off the coast of Scotland, or (D) near Murmansk, U.S.S.R.

What got Galileo Galilei in trouble with the Inquisition? (A) challenging church doctrine and supporting Copernicus's postulation that the planets revolve around the sun, (B) contradicting theologists who believed that the moon was the center of the universe, (C) challenging Copernicus's telescopic observations of the moons of Jupiter, or (D) postulating that the scientific method was invalid for understanding planetary processes.

What prevented Copernicus from getting into trouble with church theologists? (A) He acknowledged that the Earth was the center of the universe, (B) He bribed critical theologists, (C) He convinced the theologists that the scientific method was valid, or (D) He died soon after he published his work.

Why does the stream shown on the slide, which flows across a bog in Maine, meander so much across its floodplain? (A) the stream has little bedload so it reduces its energy by lateral erosion and lengthening its path, (B) cold snow-melt water is more efficient at eroding and depositing sediments than "normal" warmer waters, (C) ice cements the stream bed graves into immovable blocks that cannot be moved as bedload, or (D) the stream has so much sediment that it cannot efficiently transport its bedload without taking on this pattern.

What type of process devastated this West Virginia mountain side? (A) volcanic eruption, (B) water flooding, (C) creep or (D) debris flow.

What's the origin of the long sinuous ridge in the lowlands shown on the slide? (A) erosion by cirque glaciers, (B) deposition on a lake-shore beach, (C) deposition in a subglacial tunnel, or (D) erosion by a braided stream.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) river terraces, (B) peneplains, (C) structural terraces, or (D) karst drainage.

Why are the walls of this ice cave deformed from their original vertical orientation? (A) glacial sliding, (B) tectonic strain, (C) physical weathering in a crevasse, or (D) visco-plastic flow of ice.

Why do outwash streams, like the Matanuska River shown on the slide, have braided channel patterns? (A) glaciers supply so much melt-water that the river can erode its channel to a greater depth, (B) cold melt water is more efficient at eroding and depositing sediments than "normal" warmer waters, (C) ice cements the stream bed graves into immovable blocks, or (D) glaciers generate so much sediment that the stream cannot efficiently transport its bedload without taking on a shallow, wide, braided pattern.

What is likely to happen on this bend on the Red River in Oklahoma, the site shown in the slide? (A) the meander is going to be cut off, (B) the meander is going to straighten out because of erosion on point bars, (C) the pattern is inherently stable, so should persist for many thousands of years, or (D) all of these answers suck, so I'll go for "none of the above".

The slide shows (A) a floating glacier, called an ice shelf, (B) a grounded glacier, called an ice tongue, (C) a glacially scoured valley, drowned by sea-level rise, called a fiord, or (D) an ice-tectonic feature called a nunatak.

What caused the deep holes shown on the slide? (A) cave collapse, (B) solution of limestone, (C) meteorite impact, or (D) scour by flooding.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) waterfall underlain by resistant shale, (B) waterfall underlain by resistant sandstone, (C) waterfall underlain by resistant limestone, or (D) waterfall underlain by resistant dolomite.

How did the rocks show in this slide get where they are today? (A) transported by landslide, (B) transported by bulldozers, (C) transported by a big flood, or (D) these boulders are bedrock outcrops.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) river terraces, (B) peneplains, (C) structural terraces, or (D) karst drainage.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) fiord, (B) nunatak, (C) bajada, or (D) drumlin.

The devastation of vegetation shown in the slide was caused by (A) debris flow, (B) rock slide, (C) earth slump, or (D) creep.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) baymouth bar, (B) spit, (C) seastack, or (D) barchan.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) kettle, (B) kame, (C) moraine, or (D) drumlin.

Identify which feature is shown on the slide. (A) zone of ablation, (B) zone of accumulation, (C) cone of depression, or (D) photosphere.

Which is likely to be the largest stream? (A) First order, (B) Second order, (C) Third order, or (D) Fifth order.

If a second order stream meets a third order stream, the resulting stream has an order of: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, or (D) 4.

When a third order stream meets a third order stream the resulting stream has an order of: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, or (D) 4.

If a 7th order stream flows into a 8th order stream, the resulting stream is called (A) 6th order, (B) 7th order, (C) 8th order, or (D) 9th order.

If a 7th order stream flows into another 7th order stream, the resulting stream is called (A) 6th order, (B) 7th order, (C) 8th order, or (D) 9th order.

If you visit a stream 10 times throughout a year, and at each visit there is water in the channel, the stream is probably (A) ephemeral, (B) intermittent, (C) perennial, or (D) consequent.

If you visit a stream 10 times throughout a year, and at each visit there is no water in the channel, the stream is probably (A) ephemeral, (B) intermittent, (C) perennial, or (D) consequent.

In which type of flow is there no mixing between layers? (A) tranquil flow, (B) shooting flow, (C) laminar flow, or (D) all of the above.

Which step is used to reduce sheet erosion on farms? (A) contour plowing, (B) strip planting, (C) terracing, or (D) all of these.

Which of the following is a type of sediment carried by streams? (A) bed load, (B) suspended load, (C) dissolved load, or (D) all of these load are carried by streams.

Material is transported by streams as (A) bedload, (B) suspended load, (C) ions in solution, or (D) all of the above.

The three types of sediment load are: (A) bed, suspended, and dissolved, (B) bed, dissolved, and laminar, (C) bed, suspended, and evolved, or (D) heavy, spent, and undissolved.

Clay is deposited: (A) as flocculated clumps in quiet environments, (B) in high-energy environments, (C) in steep mountain streams, or (D) as an igneous rock.

An abandoned stream meander is called: (A) a point bar, (B) an oxbow lake, (C) a braided stream, or (D) a mid-channel bar.

A drainage basin is underlain by a sandstone cemented by calcium carbonate and underlain by a shale. What might one find in solution in waters of the stream that drains this basin? (A) calcium ions, (B) mud, (C) sand, or (D) sandstone boulders.

A drainage basin is underlain by a sandstone cemented by calcium carbonate and underlain by a shale. What might one find in solution in waters of the stream that drains this basin? (A) dissolved carbonate, (B) clay, (C) sand, or (D) shale pebbles.

Which is difficult for streams to erode, but easy to transport? (A) clay, (B) silt, (C) sand, or (D) boulders.

Which is difficult for streams to erode and transport? (A) clay, (B) silt, (C) sand, or (D) boulders.

Which material is most easily transported, once eroded? (A) clay, (B) silt, (C) fine sand, or (D) coarse sand.

What sediments are moved only by floods or other very high flows in Appalachian streams? (A) all sediments carried in a stream (B) suspended load, (C) tractive (bed) load, (D) dissolved load.

Meandering occurs (a) in streams where sediment load exceeds the stream's ability to transport sediment, (B) on most streams, (C) on few streams,or (D) only in laboratory simulations of streams.

What might happen to a graded stream that has its sediment supply cut off by the construction of dams upstream? (A) the stream would build up (aggrade) its channel and floodplain, (B) the stream would erode (degrade) its channel and floodplain, (C) nothing, once a stream is in grade it never changes, or (D) the channel will begin to braid.

What might you expect to occur after a stream is straightened (channelized)? (A) the stream erodes its bed to create a shallower channel, (B) the stream will erode its banks and construct point bars, re-creating a channel similar to its original channel, (C) the stream will shift from a third order stream to second order, or (D) base level will fall until the stream incises its bed, leaving a terrace or similar feature.

What would happen to stream whose base level drops by 100 meters. (A) the stream will deposits sediment, raising its channel. (B) the stream will not change its profile. (C) the stream will meander and braid. or (D) the stream will erode its bed.

Why do rivers commonly erode their channels downstream from a man-made dam? (A) sediment load increases because of the dam, (B) water flow is more constant after the dam is constructed, (C) dams cause more runoff in the streams that are dammed, or (D) sediment load decreases because of the dam.

Which is a characteristic of an old age stream? (A) steep V-shaped valleys, (B) incised meanders, (C) broad meanders and oxbow lakes, or (D) lack of dissolved load.

Which is a characteristic of a rejuvenated stream? (A) steep V-shaped valleys, (B) incised meanders, (C) broad meanders and oxbow lakes, or (D) lack of dissolved load.

In which direction do point bars and meander bends migrate with time? (A) toward the inside of meander bends, (B) south in the northern hemisphere, (C) toward the outside of the meander bends, or (D) upstream.

A rise in base level for a stream will produce: (A) erosion, (B) deposition, (C) no change, or (D) a graded stream.

Most stream channels: (A) meander only when disturbed, (B) meander naturally, (C) are straight unless disturbed, or (D) become smaller downstream.

Trellis, dendritic, and parallel are all patterns of (A) landslides, (B) sea-floor spreading, (C) soils, or (D) drainage.

Low relief and well-developed meanders are typical of: (A) youthful landscapes, (B) rejuvenated landscapes, (C) old landscapes, or (D) glacial landscapes.

A stream in which there is an equilibrium between the capacity of the stream and the stream's bed load is called: (A) an equitable stream, (B) a sloped stream, (C) a graded stream, or (D) base level.

Braided streams occur (A) where sediment load exceeds the stream's ability to transport sediment, (B) where sediment load is less than the stream's ability to transport sediment, (C) on all streams, and (D) on all meandering streams.

A large region has vegetation, but no perennial streams. What happens to water that falls on this landscape as precipitation? (A) Most infiltrates into the ground-water. (B) Most is lost trough evapo-transpiration. (C) Most sublimates. (D) Most of it is stored in underground lakes and rivers.

The ancients, including Biblical authors, believed that most water in streams (A) came from rainfall, (B) came from the ground, (C) came from snow melt, or (D) did not flow downhill.

The ancients, including Biblical authors, believed that most water in streams (A) came from the ground, (B) came from rainfall, (C) came from snow melt, or (D) did not flow downhill.

Which statement is most accurate? (A) Rainfall is uniformly distributed throughout the central Appalachians, (B) Rainfall is greater in Appalachian valleys than on nearby mountains, (C) Rainfall is greater on Appalachian mountains than in nearby valleys, or (D) It never rains in southern California.

Where is most of the world's water stored? (A) rivers and lakes, (B) oceans, (C) glaciers, or (D) ground-water.

If a small drainage basin averages 200 mm of precipitation in a year, and experiences 75 mm of evaporation and transpiration, what will be the average runoff from this basin? (A) 275 mm, (B) 125 mm, (C) 2.67 mm, or (D) 15000 mm.

If a small drainage basin averages 400 mm of precipitation in a year, and experiences 125 mm of evaporation and transpiration, what will be the average runoff from this basin? (A) 275 mm, (B) 125 mm, (C) 2.67 mm, or (D) 15000 mm.

Most of the world's fresh water is stored (A) in streams, (B) in lakes, (C) in the oceans, or (D) as ground-water.

The ancients believed that (A) precipitation in a stream basin was less than runoff in the streams, (B) precipitation in a stream basin was more than runoff in the streams, (C) rain was stored in the underworld, or (D) that stream flow was the result of volcanic dewatering of the earth's interior.

How much flood warning time can one expect to have on a small stream with a steep drainage basin, as is common in the Appalachians? (A) minutes, at best, (B) many hours, (C) a few days, or (D) many days.

How much flood warning time can one expect to have on a very large river like the Mississippi? (A) minutes, (B) many hours, (C) a few days, or (D) none.

Flood control dams (A) never work, (B) control all floods, (C) may be ineffective at controlling extremely large floods, or (D) may be ineffective at controlling small floods, although they stop large floods.

What best describes the floodplain? (A) It is not part of the river. (B) It is inundated (flooded) only when man interferes with nature. (C) It is part of the river, so we should expect it to be inundated. (D) It is a safe place to build for 99 years after a 100 year flood.

What is the probability of a 100 year flood occurring in a given year? (A) .01 percent, (B) 1 percent, (C) 100 percent, or (D) 10 percent.

What is the probability of a 50 year flood occurring in a given year? (A) .02 percent, (B) 2 percent, (C) 200 percent, or (D) 20 percent.

How could you predict the discharge of a 50 year flood? (A) Plot the flood series data on regular square grid graph paper. (B) Plot the flood series data on special Gumbel graph paper. (C) Multiply volume times discharge. (D) Divide the recurrence interval by discharge.

How could you predict the discharge of a 100 year flood? (A) Plot the flood series data on special Gumbel graph paper. (B) Plot the flood series data on regular square grid graph paper. (C) Divide recurrence interval by discharge. or (D) Multiply volume times discharge.

Which kind of weather is most likely to produce extreme floods in a very small drainage basin? (A) a thunderstorm, (B) a frontal storm, (C) a tropical cyclone (hurricane), or (D) snow melt.

Which kind of event is most likely to produce extreme floods in a very large drainage basin in the northern U.S.? (A) a thunderstorm, (B) a snow storm, (C) a tropical cyclone (hurricane), or (D) snow melt.

Which kind of event is most likely to produce extreme floods in a very large drainage basin? (A) a thunderstorm, (B) a dam failure, (C) a tropical cyclone (hurricane), or (D) snow melt.

During a flood, the decrease in water velocity when water spreads out from the channel onto the floodplain may produce (A) a channel bar (B) a meander, (C) an ox-bow lake, or (D) a levee.

What is the probability of a 10 year flood occurring in a given year? (A) .01 percent, (B) 1 percent, (C) 100 percent, or (D) 10 percent.

Expansive clays (A) increase landslide potential, (B) decrease landslide potential, (C) have no influence on landslide potential, or (D) never shrink or swell, unless heated over one thousand degrees.

Where is creep fastest? (A) at the bottom of the soil profile, (B) in the middle of the soil profile, (C) at the top of the soil profile, or (D) creep moves at the same rate throughout the whole soil profile.

Permafrost refers to (A) the active layer, (B) solifluction, (C) perennially frozen ground, or (D) a low geothermal gradient.

What type of mass movement would be the slowest? (A) ice fall, (B) water fall, (C) earth creep, or (D) debris flow.

Movement of surface material caused by gravity is called: (A) slump, (B) creep, (C) tectonics, or (D) mass wasting, or mass movement.

What factors contribute to downslope movement of soil? (A) undercutting at the base of the slope, (B) removal of vegetation, (C) excess water allowed to seep into the soil, or (D) all of these factors.

A slope formed by the accumulation of fallen rock fragments is called (A) creep, (B) solifluction lobe, (C) talus, or (D) an ophiolite suite.

Give a name for a large pile of boulders and other large rock fragments that can be found below most vertical cliffs: (A) talus, (B) head scarp, (C) solifluction lobe, or (D) debris fall.

A sudden catastrophic movement of rocks along a plane of weakness is called (A) slump, (B) creep, (C) solifluction, or (D) rockslide.

A sudden catastrophic movement of rocks along a plane of weakness is a: (A) slump, (B) rockslide, (C) mudflow, or (D) debris avalanche.

The rate of creep is dependent on: (A) gravity, (B) slope steepness, (C) vegetation cover, or (D) all of the preceding.

A downslope movement of an intact mass of rock or unconsolidated material is called (A) slump, (B) creep, (C) solifluction, or (D) rockslide.

Downslope movement of water-saturated soil, commonly in areas of permafrost, is called (A) slump, (B) creep, (C) solifluction, or (D) rockslide.

Which presents the least immediate danger to human beings (A) debris avalanche, (B) formation of talus, (C) creep, or (D) rockslide.

Generally, which is the least rapid event? (A) rockslide, (B) creep, (C) mud flow, or (D) debris avalanche.

The active zone is (A) the E horizon, (B) the zone of maximum melting of glacial ice, (C) above the zone of permafrost, or (D) above most point bars.

Tilted fence posts and telephone poles are evidence of: (A) mudflows, (B) debris avalanche, (C) creep, or (D) talus.

What type of disaster killed an estimated 17,000 people in Yungay, Peru, during 1970? (A) flood, (B) earthquake, (C) catastrophic sinkhole collapse, or (D) debris avalanche triggered by earthquake.

What type of disaster killed an estimated 20,000 people near Volcano Ruiz in 1985? (A) a flood, (B) an earthquake, (C) catastrophic sinkhole collapse, or (D) a debris avalanche or debris flow.

What factors contribute to downslope movement of soil? (A) undercutting at the base of the slope, (B) removal of vegetation, (C) excess water allowed to seep into the soil, or (D) all of these factors.

When geologists or civil engineers speak of the factor of safety, what do they mean? (A) the probability of flooding on a river, (B) the average return time between floods on a river, (C) the ratio of shear strength to shear stress in rocks or "soils" on a slope, or (D) the rate at which pollutants are broken down by groundwater in an aquifer.

What is the correct term for a rotational landslide that involves a mix of boulders and cobbles along with some fine "soil"? (A) debris avalanche, (B) earth slide, (C) debris slump, or (D) rock fall.

What is the correct term for a mass movement that involves a laminar-flowing slurry of boulders and cobbles along with some fine "soil"? (A) debris flow, (B) earth slide, (C) earth slump, or (D) rock flow.

Why do high rates of chemical weathering occur in high mountainous areas? (A) Areas of rapid uplift undergo rapid mechanical breakdown of rocks, promoting rapid chemical weathering, (B) easily eroded and weathered sedimentary rocks are usually exposed in high mountain belts, (C) high mountains block moisture-bearing winds and cause large amounts of rainfall, or (D) all of these factors cause high weathering rates.

Which of the following is a control of weathering? (A) temperature, (B) geochemical environment, (C) plants, or (D) all of the above.

The products of the weathering of orthoclase feldspar are (A) olivine, pyroxene, and supergene, (B) calcite, carbonic acid, and carbon dioxide, (C) kaolinite, silicic acid, and ions in solution, or (D) bauxite, hematite, and plagioclase.

The products of the weathering of calcite are (A) olivine, pyroxene, and supergene, (B) calcium and bicarbonate ions in solution, (C) kaolinite, silicic acid, and ions in solution, or (D) bauxite, hematite, and plagioclase.

Freeze-thaw, salt weathering, and plant roots all are effective agents of weathering because each process (A) produces compression within rocks, (B) produces tension within rocks, (C) produces foliation in metamorphic rocks, or (D) occurs in every geological environment.

Moisture, temperature, geochemical environment, vegetation, and rock type are all considered controls of (A) glaciation, (B) alluviation, (C) longshore drift, or (D) weathering.

Kaolinite, a clay mineral, is produced from the weathering of (A) feldspar, (B) quartz, (C) calcite, or (D) halite.

Imagine you are a 18th century quarryman working in a Vermont granite quarry. Your boss tells you to pour dried beans down a crack in the granite, followed by copious quantities of water. Why did he tell you to do this? (A) The swelling of the soaked beans will create tension in the granite, breaking the rock further. (B) The swelling of the soaked beans will create compression in the granite, breaking the rock further. (C) The beans will bond the rock together, allowing the quarry operators to extract larger blocks. (D) The man does not like beans.

Fresh angular rock fragments may become rounded because of (A) disintegration along joint planes, (B) spheroidal weathering, (C) brecciation, or (D) weathering along bedding planes.

Where should one locate a sanitary landfill? (A) in an aquifer, (B) in an aquiclude, (C) in old mines, or (D) below the water table.

Imagine you are drilling a well. What is the correct order of moisture zones that the drill bit (tip end) will meet as the well progresses down from the surface? (A) vadose zone, phreatic zone, belt of soil moisture, capillary fringe, (B) connate zone, phreatic zone, belt of soil moisture, water table, (C) belt of soil moisture, vadose zone, capillary fringe, phreatic zone, or (D) belt of Jack Daniels, twilight zone, O zone, and a tight 1-3-1 zone.

Excessive pumping of ground-water may lead to (A) subsidence, (B) salt-water intrusion, (C) changes in direction of travel from nearby sources of pollution, or (D) all of the above.

What might you mix with mine tailings in order to neutralize the pH of runoff from the tailings? (A) acids, (B) calcium carbonate, (C) pyrite, (B) or (D) quartz.

According to your text book, what would geologists almost unanimously urge about dowsing (water witching)? (A) It is a good investment, if you want to find water. (B) It is a good investment for finding oil, gas, or water. (C) It is the most successful way to find water. (D) Do not to pay for a dowser's service if a fee were charged.

Connate water is (A) old, (B) freshly recharged ground-water, (C) high in acid mine drainage, or (D) artesian.

What is the worst problem prevalent in West Virginia wells? (A) bacteria, (B) brines, (C) UST, or (D) scarcity of ground-water.

Which of the following best describes ground-water? (A) It occurs in underground lakes and rivers. (B) It moves in mysterious ways that can not be understood. (C) It is always pure and good to drink. (D) It provides an important area of employment for geologists.

Which of the following best describes ground-water? (A) It occurs in underground lakes and rivers. (B) It moves in mysterious ways that can not be understood. (C) It is not always pure and good to drink. (D) It provides little employment for geologists.

The ability of water to penetrate a rock or unconsolidated material to is known as that material's (A) porosity, (B) density, (C) specific gravity, or (D) permeability.

The amount of void space in a rock or unconsolidated material to is known as that material's (A) porosity, (B) permeability, (C) specific gravity, or (D) density.

Which would be the best source for well water? (A) belt of soil moisture, (B) capillary fringe, (C) vadose zone, or (D) phreatic zone.

Rapid pumping of water from a well often produces (A) a parched aquifer, (B) an artesian well, (C) a cone of depression, or (D) a rise in the water table.

Karst terrain may be characterized by: (A) sinkholes, (B) pinnacles, (C) dolines, or (D) all of the above.

Karst terrain may be characterized by (A) sinkholes, (B) braided streams, (C) debris flows, or (D) all of the above.

A speleothem (cave formation) that hangs from the ceiling of a cave is called (A) a stalactite, (B) a stalagmite, (C) a pinnacle, or (D) all of the above.

What are the speleothems (cave "formations") that have grown down from the ceiling in this slide from Carlsbad Caverns? (A) stalactite, (B) stalagmite, (C) pinnacle, or (D) karst.

What are the speleothems (cave "formations") that have grown up from the floor in this slide from Carlsbad Caverns? (A) stalactite, (B) stalagmite, (C) pinnacle, or (D) karst.

The phreatic zone is also known as: (A) the zone of aeration, (B) the zone of saturation, (C) the vadose zone, or (D) the "O" zone.

The phreatic zone is also known as: (A) the zone of saturation, (B) the vadose zone, (C) the zone of aeration, or (D) the end zone.

Excessive pumping of an aquifer may lead to: (A) a drop in water table, (B) a rise in water table, (C) an artesian aquifer, or (D) a perched aquifer.

Wells that flow without pumping originate from (A) a perched aquifer, (B) an artesian aquifer, (C) an aquitard, or (D) an aquiclude.

How are oxbow lakes created? (A) as cut-off meanders, (B) on braided streams, (C) solution weathering of limestone, or (D) as part of C horizons in arid landscapes.

A travertine cave feature that has grown up from the floor of a cave, but does not reach the ceiling is called a (A) stalagmite, (B) stalactite, (C) column, or (D) doline.

What are the speleothems (cave "formations") that have grown down from the ceiling in this slide from Carlsbad Caverns? (A) stalactite, (B) stalagmite, (C) pinnacle, or (D) karst.

What are the speleothems (cave "formations") that have grown up from the floor in this slide from Carlsbad Caverns? (A) stalactite, (B) stalagmite, (C) pinnacle, or (D) karst.

Today's most promising field for employment in geology is (A) petroleum geology, (B) coal geology, (C) mineral exploration, or (D) environmental geology.

A stream flowing over which rock type would probably contain the greatest dissolved load? (A) granite, (B) sandstone, (C) shale, or (D) marble. [### Many have missed this question, but it is okay]

A stream flowing over which rock type would probably contain the greatest dissolved load? (A) limestone, (B) granite, (C) sandstone, or (D) shale.

Permeability is a measure of a rock's (A) density, (B) water-transmitting capacity, (C) water-holding capacity, or (D) bulk composition.

According to your text book, which method of finding water has the best chance of success? (A) dowsing, (B) water-witching, (C) detailed geological study, or (D) drilling or digging wells based on chance.

An aquifer that occurs above the main water table is probably (A) a perched aquifer, (B) an artesian aquifer, (C) an aquitard, or (D) an aquiclude.

A rock or sediment that inhibits the flow of ground water is (A) a perched aquifer, (B) an artesian aquifer, (C) an aquitard, or (D) a karst aquifer.

A permeable material that transmits groundwater is known as: (A) an aquifer, (B) connate water, (C) a capillary fringe, or (D) a geyser.

Calcite dissolves in caves because: (A) it is soluble in carbonic acid and other weak acids, (B) it is soluble in strong acids, (C) it is soluble in saltpeter which formed from bat droppings, or (D) of the great pressure in caves.

Selenium is a toxic element that exists in dangerous amounts in (A) most ground-water, (B) tectonic belts where sedimentary rocks are exposed in rainy climates, (C) irrigated arid drainage basins, like the San Joaquin Valley, or (D) thalwegs of river channels that flow over gold deposits.

Where would you find unaltered parent material in a soil profile? (A) A horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) E horizon.

Where would you find the most weathered material in a soil profile? (A) A horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) E horizon.

The B horizon in a soil is (A) the zone of accumulation, (B) or zone of illuviation, (C) below the A horizon, or (D) all of the above.

The B horizon in a soil is (A) the zone of accumulation, (B) or zone of elluviation, (C) below the C horizon, or (D) all of the above.

The B horizon in a soil is (A) the zone of leaching, (B) or zone of illuviation, (C) below the C horizon, or (D) none of the above.

What accumulates in the B horizon of a soil? (A) mostly iron, clay and other "stuff" from the C horizon, (B) mostly iron, clay and other "stuff" from the A horizon, (C) muddy water and little else, or (D) little because this is the zone of leaching.

Where would you usually find the highest concentrations of iron and clay in a soil profile? (A) A horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) E horizon.

Where is material (such as clay and iron) likely to accumulate in a soil profile? (A) A horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) R horizon.

What accumulates in the A horizon of a soil? (A) mostly iron, clay and other "stuff" from the C horizon, (B) mostly iron, clay and other "stuff" from the B horizon, (C) muddy water and little else, or (D) little besides organic matter; this is the zone of leaching.

Floodplain soils can be classified as: (A) residual soils, (B) transported soils, (C) illuvial soils, or (D) aeolian soils.

Which is not considered a factor of soil formation? (A) climate, (B) time, (C) man, or (D) parent material.

Which horizon is in the zone of elluviation? (A) E horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) R horizon.

Which horizon is in the zone of illuviation? (A) E horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) R horizon.

Which is an example of transported soil? (A) floodplain alluvium, (B) loess, (C) till, or (D) all of the above.

If you were looking for a good source of organic-rich soil to add to your garden, which soil profile would you seek: (A) A horizon, (B) B horizon, (C) C horizon, or (D) E horizon.

Which of the following is not included in the factors of soil formation? (A) climate, (B) time, (C) geography, or (D) organisms.

What is the significance of the 5300 year old frozen corpse found on the margin of Similaun Glacier in the Tyrolian Alps in 1991? (A) evidence of a cold climate from 9500 to 5500 years ago, (B) evidence of a cold climate since 5300 years ago, (C) evidence of glacial readvance in this century, or (D) evidence of karst collapse at the time of his death.

What is the significance of finding tillite in a stratigraphic column? (A) indicates direct deposition by glacial ice, (B) indicates deposition from ice shelves or ice bergs, (C) indicates deposition of material rafted in by Noah's flood, or (D) indicates precipitation of calcite from ground water in a cave or stream.

What is the significance of finding dropstones in a stratigraphic column? (A) indicates direct deposition by glacial ice, (B) indicates deposition of clasts released from ice bergs, (C) indicates deposition of talus material, or (D) indicates precipitation of calcite in a cave or stream.

The slide shows (A) floating glaciers, called an ice shelves, (B) ice sheets, (C) ice caps, or (D) 4 large cirque glaciers.

This slide was used as an example of (A) ice caps, (B) a yardang, (C) a cirque, or (D) medial moraines.

Granite boulders resting on a limestone terrain are indicative of what process? (A) rifting, (B) glaciation, (C) wind transport, or (D) lithification.

Raised beaches on recently deglaciated coastlines, such as Hudson Bay, may be the result of (A) evaporation of ocean water, (B) recent isostatic rebound, (C) recent isostatic depression, or (D) meltwater drainage along the coastline.

Which is not a good indicator of ice-flow directions of an old glacier? (A) striations, (B) grooves, (C) drumlins, or (D) aretes.

The intermediate phase between snow and glacial ice is called (A) firm, (B) nova, (C) firn, or (D) intermedium.

Material transported at the base of a glacier is called (A) supraglacial debris, (B) englacial debris, (C) subglacial debris, or (D) all of the above.

In the lectures on glaciers, the term snow line was used. Which of the following terms was used in the textbook to represent the same concept as snow line? (A) medial moraine, (B) zone of ablation, (C) varve, or (D) firn limit.

Which type of landform occurs at the margins of continental glaciers? (A) moraines, (B) eskers, (C) horns, or (D) vadose zone.

Ablation includes: (A) melting and calving only, (B) melting and sublimation only, (C) calving and sublimation only, or (D) melting, calving, and sublimation.

The zone of ablation and the zone of accumulation on a glacier are separated by (A) snow line, (B) water line, (C) glacier terminus, or (D) offensive line.

Which material is transitional between snow and glacial ice? (A) firn, (B) medial ice, (C) forn, or (D) all of the above.

Which is not a characteristic of a glacier? (A) composed of ice derived from snow, (B) lasts from year to year, (C) occurs only at the geographic poles, or (D) moves because of its own weight.

A stream deposit that forms between a glacier and the valley wall is called: (A) lateral moraine, (B) kame terrace, (C) medial moraine, or (D) esker.

An erosional landform that develops between a glacier and the valley walls is called (A) lateral moraine, (B) kame terrace, (C) kame, or (D) meltwater channel.

Which is the least likely control of ice ages? (A) the configurations of continents relative to the poles solar output, (C) the amount of volcanic ash in the atmosphere, or (D) paleomagnetic reversals.

Which conditions best match what is found at the base of ice sheets? (A) a frozen bed throughout, (B) a layer of water throughout, (C) frozen bed at parts of the snout, wet bed under the thicker ice (D) wet bed at parts of the snout, frozen bed under the thicker ice.

Material carried by meltwater away from a glacier is apt to be deposited as (A) outwash, (B) till, (C) firn, or (D) englacial debris.

Steep, pointed mountains formed by erosion of three or more cirque glaciers are called (A) cirques, (B) horns, (C) aretes, or (D) tarns.

Which is considered an Alpine (or valley) glacial landform? (A) cirque, (B) horn, (C) arete, or (D) all of these features.

Horns are characteristic landforms in landscapes which have undergone (A) alpine glaciation, (B) continental glaciation, (C) karst solution, or (D) stream erosion.

Which feature is characteristic of glaciated terrains? (A) sinkholes, (B) barrier bars, (C) well-integrated streams, or (D) moraines.

A depression that forms on a surface because of the melting of a buried block of ice is called: (A) a kame, (B) a kettle, (C) a sinkhole, or (D) an esker.

Which is the smallest type of glacier? (A) ice sheet, (B) ice cap, (C) cirque glacier, or (D) ice shelf.

Which is the largest type of glacier? (A) cirque glacier, (B) ice sheet, (C) ice cap, or (D) alpine glacier.

A deep glacial valley partially filled with sea water is known as a: (A) drumlin, (B) lateral moraine, (C) fiord, or (D) arete.

Which has the greatest density? (A) fresh snow, (B) corn snow, (C) glacier ice, or (D) meltwater.

When have ice ages been recorded in the geologic record? (A) never, (B) only during the last 2 million years (the Pleistocene), (C) several occasions throughout geologic time, or (D) only at the beginning of earth's history.

The landscape near which of the following cities is known to have been covered by glacial ice? (A) New York, (B) Chicago, (C) Cincinnati, or (D) All of these cities.

Frozen sea water forms (A) icebergs, (B) ice sheets, (C) ice shelves, or (D) pack ice.

Where do flow lines in a glacier come to the ice surface? (A) in the zone of ablation, (B) in the zone of accumulation, (C) at the snow line, or (D) in stagnant ice masses.

Where do flow lines in a glacier have a strong downward component? (A) in the zone of ablation, (B) in the zone of accumulation, (C) at the snow line, or (D) in stagnant ice masses.

How do ice shelves ablate? (A) refreezing at their bed, largely through calving of icebergs, (C) disintegration into pack ice, or (D) melting, with most of the flow channeled into rivers.

Why do crevasses form? (A) movement of brittle ice over top of plasticly flowing ice, (B) they are conduits for the outflow of geothermal heat, (C) differential melting of glacier ice under varying sunlight, (D) deposition caused by the confluence of two or more lateral moraines.

Which of the following phenomena have been produced by glaciation? (A) decreased volcanism, (B) constant sea-level throughout geologic history, (C) large-scale climatic shifts, or (D) none of the above.

Why are meltwater streams usually braided? (A) glacial meltwater is usually carrying very little bedload, (B) glacial meltwater is usually carrying a great amount of bedload, (C) most glacial terrains are in cold climates, or (D) glacial streams are very cold, so the water freezes in the center of the streams, creating mid-channel bars.

A crevasse that forms at the head of a cirque is called (A) arete, (B) bergschrund, (C) horn, or (D) drumlin.

Which is a special feature only created by alpine glaciers? (A) kettles, (B) eskers, (C) hanging valleys, or (D) end moraines.

Which is most likely to create glacial striations? (A) pack ice, (B) shelf ice, (C) cirque glaciers, (D) yardangs.

Which is a process of ablation? (A) neve, (B) roches moutonees, (C) calving, or (D) freezing.

Where is an ice sheet most effective at erosion? (A) where the basal ice melts, (B) where the ice is thickest, (C) where there is a downward component of flow, or (D) where a layer of water at the base freezes.

Where is an ice sheet most effective at erosion? (A) the center of the ice sheet, (B) where the ice is thickest, (C) where there is an upward component of ice flow, or (D) where a layer of water at the base melts.

How do glaciers flow when ablation begins to exceed accumulation? (A) down the ice surface slope (downhill), (B) up the ice surface slope (uphill), (C) no flow at all, or (D) downhill only at the snout.

How thick does glacial ice have to become before it flows like "silly-putty"? (A) 20 feet (6 m), (B) 160 feet (50 m), (C) 600 feet (200 m), or (D) 5000 feet (1600 m).

What happens in an area that has existing valley glaciers, but has a snow (firn) line that drops below the lowest elevation on the landscape? (A) isostatic rebound, (B) ice caps or piedmont glaciers start to form, (C) cirque and valley glaciers contract, or (D) all ice disappears.

Which of the following concerns prevents the use of Antarctic ice bergs as a source of fresh water for Saudi Arabia? (A) the ice bergs would dilute the world's ocean water, (B) the large towing vessels or propulsion systems required for the job do not yet exist, (C) ice bergs are relatively rare near the North Pole, or (D) all of these factors.

The finest wind-related sediments are:(A) loess, (B) cover sands, (C) ventifacts, or (D) dune sands.

A desert is always marked by: (A) high temperatures, (B) low precipitation, (C) cacti, or (D) barchans.

A desert is always marked by: (A) sand dunes, (B) cactus, (C) high temperatures, or (D) low precipitation.

A wind-polished rock is known as (A) loess, (B) a ventifact, (C) a dune, or (D) eolian.

Desert pavements form because of (A) deposition, (B) saltation, (C) deflation, or (D) bajadafication.

Wind-eroded rock surfaces may form (A) nunataks, (B) horns, (C) yardangs, or (D) bajadas.

Which dune type best fits this description: an isolated hill of sand with sinuous arms that converge to form a central peak up tp 300 m high; tends to remain fixed in place in an area where winds blow from all directions? (A) echinodune, (B) barchan, (C) star dune, or (D) parabolic dune.

Which of the following has the most direct influence the direction and velocity of wind? (A) air pressure, (B) air refraction, (C) surface temperatures, or (D) gravity.

Which dune type best fits this description: a cresent shaped dune with horns pointing downwind; occurs on hard flat desert in areas of constant wind direction and limited sand supply? (A) coppice dune, (B) barchan, (C) star dune, or (D) parabolic dune.

Which dune type best fits this description: a dune shaped lake a U or V, with open end facing upwind, trailing arms stabilized by vegetation also point upwind? (A) linear dune, (B) barchan, (C) star dune, or (D) parabolic dune.

Where would you expect to find yardangs? (A) on a sailing ship, (B) on the East Antarctic Ice Sheet, (C) in a rocky desert, or (D) downstream from large meltwater streams.

Where would you expect ot find inselbergs, bajadas and playas? (A) glaciated mountains, (B) glaciated lowlands, (C) an areas of sand dunes, or (D) a desert dominated by fluvial proceeses.

Identify the wind-carved features show on the slide: (A) playas, (B) nunataks, (C) cuestas, or (D) sastrugi.

Identify the mountains projecting through the ice sheet show on the slide: (A) nunataks, (B) sastrugi, (C) drumlins, or (D) yardangs.

How do we know that western China and Tibet had a warm, moist climate in the early Tertiary? (A) fossil plants, (B) fossil pollen, (C) fossil mammals, or (D) all of these fossils.

What type of problem was recognized in Lake Washington (near Seattle) by because of a bloom (population explosion) of the planktonic cyanobacteria: Oscillatoria rubescens? (A) Sand crab deaths due to nitrogen narcosis, (B) high natural phosphorous levels, due to andesite bedrock geology, (C) artificially high phosphorous levels, due to sewage routed into the lake, or (D) there was no problem, Dr. Kite is trying to trick you!

What problems might be encountered in artificial nourishment of a beach? (A) Sand crab deaths due to nitrogen narcosis, (B) nourishment may trigger beach erosion, (C) the sand supply must be continuously replenished (and may be expensive), or (D) there are no problems with beach nourishment.

Waves breaking on a beach during the summer months carry sand? (A) out to sea, (B) straight onto the beach, (C) nowhere, or (D) down the shoreline of a beach.

The highest part of a wave is called the wave (A) trough, (B) length, (C) height, or (D) crest.

Which is the most important force creating tides? (A) the moon's gravity, (B) the sun's gravity, (C) wind, or (D) none of the above.

Which is the most important force creating tides? (A) lunar gravity, (B) solar gravity, (C) wind, or (D) none of these.

Why are waves refracted? (A) Wave velocity slows in shallow water, (B) Wave velocity speeds up in shallow water, (C) because of longshore drift, or (D) the Coriolis effect.

What is an estuary? (A) drowned river valley, (B) a small floating glacier, (C) a bajada, or (D) an event produced by elastic rebound.

Beaches contain the least amount of sand during:(A) summer, (B) spring equinox, (C) winter, or (D) fall equinox.

Foreset beds are found in: (A) oxbow lakes, (B) incised meanders, (C) deltas, or (D) alluvial fans.

The lateral movement of wave-transported sediment along a shore is (A) longshore drift, (B) longshore current, (C) ablation, or (D) refining.

A straight coast in Virginia is aligned north-south, but most large waves come from the southeast. Which way will longshore currents flow? (A) north, (B) south, (C) east, or (D) west.

A straight coast in Oregon is aligned north-south, but most large waves come from the northwest. Which way will longshore currents flow? (A) north, (B) south, (C) east, or (D) west.

Wave energy is concentrated (A) at headlands, (B) at bays, (C) between bays and headlands, or (D) at the wave base.

Wave energy is concentrated (A) at bays, (B) at headlands, (C) between bays and headlands, or (D) at the wave base.

Why do headlands erode faster than bays? (A) wave refraction, (B) waves slow in shallow water, (C) wave energy is concentrated in headlands, or (D) all of the above.

Why do headlands erode faster than bays? (A) wave refraction, (B) waves speed up in shallow water, (C) wave energy is concentrated in bays, or (D) all of the above.

Which is not an erosional feature? (A) fiord, (B) wave-cut platform, (C) sea stack, or (D) baymouth bar.

Which is a depositional feature? (A) fiord, (B) wave-cut platform, (C) sea stack, or (D) baymouth bar.

A coast has benches at progressively higher elevations. Each of the benches is capped by sediment containing marine fossils. What can you interpret about the coast? (A) It is emergent. (B) It is submergent. (C) It must be tectonically stable. (D) It is sinking.

Why is the tide range higher in the Bay of Fundy than near Key West Florida? (A) Bouger (gravity) anomalies, (B) wind direction, (C) the funnel shape of the Bay of Fundy enhances tide waves, (D) the sun's gravitational attraction is greater near the equator.

Where would you expect to find a rocky coastline? (A) Maine, (B) California, (C) Oregon, or (D) all of these states.

Where would you expect to find a rocky coastline? (A) Maine, (B) Florida, (C) Virginia, or (D) all of these states.

Where would you expect to find a sandy coastline? (A) Maine, (B) Florida, (C) Oregon, or (D) all of these states.

The numerous branching channels found on many deltas are called (A) tributaries, (B) first-order streams, (C) distributaries, or (D) estuaries.

The highest tides occur (A) when the sun, moon, and earth align, (B) at neap tide, (C) every 31 hours, or (D) in the Mediterranean Ocean.

What is the name for a fold in which each of the fold axes is horizontal? (A) nonplunging fold, (B) plunging fold, (C) asymmetrical fold, or (D) normal fold.

An erosion surface that forms on plutonic or metamorphic rock, and then is covered by layered sedimentary or volcanic rocks is called (A) and angular unconformity, (B) a conformity, (C) a disconformity, or (D) a nonconformity.

Identify the feature(s) shown on the slide. (A) recumbent fold (B) boudinage (C) anticline and syncline, or (D) overturned folds.

An unconformity in which younger strata overlie an erosion surface on tilted or folded layered rock is called (A) a nonconformity (B) a disconformity, (C) a conformity, or (D) an angular unconformity.

Buried erosion surfaces developed on plutonic or metamorphic rocks are called: (A) angular unconformities, (B) nonconformities, (C) paraconformities, or (D) disconformities.

A change in the shape of a rock as a result of applied forces is called: (A) stress, (B) strain, (C) strike, or (D) plunge.

A line formed by the intersection of a bedding plane and an imaginary horizontal plane is called: (A) dip, (B) strike, (C) plunge, or (D) the axis.

How many strike directions can be determined at a point on a dipping bed of rock? (A) none, (B) one, (C) four, or (D) 10⁶.

Which structure probably has undergone the greatest amount of compression? (A) recumbent fold, (B) symmetrical fold, (C) asymmetrical fold, or (D) normal fault.

Under compression, brittle rocks will develop (A) normal faulting, (B) reverse faulting, (C) folds, or (D) boudinage.

Under tension, plastic rocks will develop (A) normal faulting, (B) reverse faulting, (C) folds, or (D) boudinage.

In a sequence of folded rocks that have been eroded, where do the youngest rocks crop out? (A) the cores of domes, (B) the limbs of folds, (C) the cores of anticlines, or (D) the cores of synclines.

In a sequence of folded rocks that have been eroded, where do the oldest rocks crop out? (A) the cores of basins, (B) the limbs of folds, (C) the cores of anticlines, or (D) the cores of synclines.

Younger rocks are exposed (A) in the centers of anticlines, (B) in the centers of synclines, (C) on the limbs of synclines, or (D) in the centers of anticlinoria.
 
 
 
 

Where would you expect to find horses and ramps? (A) tilt-block mountains, (B) in garnet-grade rocks, (C) in the inner core, or (D) in thrust-faulted areas.

What structure or structures are indicated by the strike and dip symbols on the following geologic map? (A) an anticline, (B) a syncline, (C) 2 anticlines and 2 synclines, or (D) 3 faults.

What sort of feature would you expect to develop under tension near the surface of the earth? (A) reverse faults, (B) normal faults, (C) folds, or (D) boudinage.

Older rocks are exposed (A) in the centers of synclines, (B) in the centers of anticlines, (C) on the limbs of anticline, or (D) in the centers of geosynclines.

Which structures would indicate the greatest amount of deformation? (A) symmetrical folds, (B) asymmetrical folds, (C) overturned folds, or (D) horizontal strata.

Which of the following is not a fold type? (A) strike-slip fold, (B) recumbent fold, (C) anticline, or (D) syncline.

A fold in which the axial plane is horizontal is called: (A) an overturned fold, (B) a horizontal fold, (C) an asymmetrical fold, or (D) a recumbent fold.

What sort of feature would you expect to develop under compression near the surface of the earth? (A) reverse faults, (B) normal faults, (C) folds, or (D) boudinage.

What sort of feature would you expect to develop under tension at great depth? (A) reverse faults, (B) normal faults, (C) folds, or (D) boudinage.
 
 
 
 

What sort of feature would you expect to develop under compression at great depth? (A) reverse faults, (B) normal faults, (C) folds, or (D) boudinage.

A fold in which one limb as been overturned is called: (A) an upseedaisium, (B) a syncline, (C) a plunging anticline, or (D) an overturned fold.

What's the term for a steeply inclined fault, along which the hanging-wall block has moved upward relative to the footwall? (A) normal fault, (B) reverse fault, (C) thrust fault, or (D) transform fault.

What is the term for a gently inclined fault, along which the hanging-wall block has moved upward relative to the footwall? (A) normal fault, (B) reverse fault, (C) thrust fault, or (D) transform fault.

What's the term for a steeply inclined fault, along which the hanging-wall block has moved downward relative to the footwall? (A) normal fault, (B) reverse fault, (C) thrust fault, or (D) transform fault.

What is the correct term for a fault that has both vertical and lateral components of motion? (A) normal fault, (B) reverse fault, (C) strike-slip fault, or (D) oblique fault.

Two points on opposite sides of a reverse fault are 100 meters apart before an earthquake. After faulting the points are (A) still 100 meters apart, (B) less than 100 meters apart, (C) more than 100 meters apart, or (D) I refuse to answer this question on the grounds that I might show ignorance.

Two points on opposite sides of a normal fault are 100 meters apart before an earthquake. After faulting the points are (A) still 100 meters apart, (B) less than 100 meters apart, (C) more than 100 meters apart, or (D) there is not enough information to answer this question, and besides, who cares?

The point of faulting, or origin of an earthquake is called the (A) epicenter, (B) focus, (C) tsunami, (D) seismopole.

The footwall moves up relative to the hanging wall in a (A) normal fault, (B) reverse fault, (C) strike-slip fault, or (D) transform faults.

Right-lateral faults are special types of (A) normal faults, (B) reverse faults, (C) strike-slip faults, or (D) transform faults.

Forces applied to a rock are referred to a (A) strain, (B) strife, (C) strike, or (D) stress.

Under compression, brittle rocks will develop (A) normal faulting, (B) reverse faulting, (C) strike-slip faulting, or (D) boudinage.

Rocks tend to break apart along (A) bedding planes, (B) cleavage planes (C) joints, (D) all of the above.

Water, or other fluids (A) have no significance to faulting, (B) will cool faults and retard faulting, (C) may lubricate fault planes and stimulate faulting, or (D) may freeze, causing faults to lock up.

What types of forces produced the feature(s) shown on the slide? (A) shear, (B) tension, (C) compression, or (D) simple static pressure.

Identify the feature shown on the slide: (A) anticline, (B) syncline, (C) San Andreas Fault, or (D) a monocline.

Identify the feature shown on the slide: (A) anticline, (B) syncline, (C) San Andreas Fault, or (D) a monocline.

Which type of fault indicates neither tension nor compression? (A) dip-slip, (B) strike-slip, (C) reverse, or (D) oblique.

Earthquakes in the eastern United States are (A) just as common as on the west coast of the United States; (B) rare, but large ones have been recorded at New Madrid, Missouri; Charleston, South Carolina; and along the Canadian border; (C) rare, but large ones have been recorded at New York; Charleston, West Virginia; and in Florida; or (D) not possible because the East Coast is a stable continental margin.

What are some of the major problems associated with construction of nuclear power plants on the West Coast of the U.S.A.? (A) active faulting, (B) dense population of electricity users along the coast, (C) most of the coast is too far away from the likely power consumers, or (D) the lack of cooling water. (Book - Box)

What aspect of the West Coast of the U.S.A. helped make it seem ideal for the development of nuclear power in the 1960s? (A) active faulting, (B) dense population all along the coast, (C) most of the coast is too far away from the likely power consumers, or (D) the abundance of cooling water. (Book - Box)

Which of the following cities has never experienced a major earthquake (A) Charleston, S.C., (B) San Francisco, Calif., (C) Los Angeles, Calif., or (D) none of these cities.

Which of the following cities is most likely to experience a major earthquake in the next 20 years? (A) Charleston, S.C., (B) San Francisco, Calif., (C) Los Angeles, Calif., or (D) Washington, D.C.

Which of the following cities is most likely to experience a major earthquake in the next 20 years? (A) Charleston, W. Va., (B) San Francisco, (C) New York, or (D) Chicago.

What extent of damage would you expect at the epicenter of an earthquake that registered 8.3 on the Richter scale and XII on the modified Mercalli scale? (A) slight, (B) moderate, (C) near total, or (D) none.

An earthquake scale based on the damage caused by an earthquake is (A) the Richter Scale, (B) the Moho Scale, (C) the Mercalli Scale, or (D) the HO Scale.

An earthquake scale based on the energy released by an earthquake is (A) the Richter Scale, (B) the Moho Scale, (C) the Mercalli Scale, or (D) the HO Scale.

Which building probably would sustain the most damage from a moderate earthquake? (A) a masonry structure built on basalt, (B) a frame structure built on basalt, (C) a masonry structure built on fine sand and silt, or (D) a frame structure built on fine sand and silt.

Earthquakes generate compressional (push-pull) waves that are called: (A) P waves, (B) S waves, (C) L waves, or (D) new waves.

The proper name for a "tidal wave" is (A) seismic sea wave, (B) P wave, (C) S wave, or (D) body wave.

The proper name for a "tidal wave" is (A) tsunami, (B) P wave, (C) C wave, or (D) R wave.

Earthquakes generate shear waves that are called: (A) P waves, (B) S waves, (C) L waves, or (D) new waves.

Following an earthquake, which arrives first? (A) S-wave, (B) P-wave, (C) X-wave, or (D) L-wave.

Which of the following waves are usually first to arrive at a seismograph following a nearby earthquake? (A) P waves, (B) S waves, (C) L waves, or (D) the third wave.

Which type of wave is not released by earthquakes (A) S-wave, (B) P-wave, (C) X-wave, or (D) L-wave.

Particle motion is parallel to wave motion in a (A) S-wave, (B) P-wave, (C) X-wave, or (D) L-wave.

Particle motion is perpendicular to wave motion in a (A) S-wave, (B) P-wave, (C) X-wave, or (D) L-wave.

Particle motion is circular in a (A) S-wave, (B) P-wave, (C) X-wave, or (D) L-wave.

Which of the following earthquake waves will pass through the earth's core? (A) S-wave, (B) P-wave, (C) X-wave, or (D) L-wave.

Where is P-wave velocity the greatest? (A) continental crust, (B) oceanic crust, (C) upper mantle, or (D) lower mantle.

Liquid iron, nickel, and silica are believed to make up most of the (A) crust, (B) lithosphere, (C) asthenosphere, or (D) outer core.

The core of the earth is probably composed of (A) iron, nickel and cobalt, (B) iron and aluminum, (C) radon, argon and krypton, or (D) silicon, oxygen and aluminum.

Ultramafic rocks with 1-10 percent magma occur in (A) the crust, (B) the lithosphere, (C) the asthenosphere, or (D) the outer core.

Where does the mantle come closest to the surface? (A) spreading centers, (B) convergent plate margins, (C) continental shelves, or (D) magmatic arcs.

Where does the mantle come closest to the surface? (A) subduction zones, (B) divergent plate margins, (C) continental shelves, or (D) magmatic arcs.

The fact that the outer core is liquid produces (A) the earth's magnetic field, (B) the S-wave shadow zone, (C) neither (A) nor (B), or (D) both (A) and (B).

Felsic and mafic rocks are believed to make up most of (A) the crust, (B) the inner core, (C) the asthenosphere, or (D) the outer core.

P-wave velocity is fastest in the (A) lower mantle, (B) upper mantle, (C) oceanic crust, or (D) continental crust.

The bending of seismic waves as they pass from one material to the next is called (A) seismography, (B) seismic reflection, (C) seismic refraction, or (D) computerized axial tomography.

The "Moho" was discovered (A) by Moe Howard, (B) because of seismic refraction, (C) because of the distribution of deep-focus earthquakes, or (D) in outcrops of layered peridotites and basalts.

The Moho (Mohorovicic discontinuity) is the boundary separating (A) crust from core, (B) core from mantle, (C) crust from mantle, or (D) Maryland from Pennsylvania.

What happens during periods of rapid plate motion? (A) a steep, narrow, prominent mid-ocean ridge develops, (B) sea levels fall, (C) a broad mid-ocean rise develops, or (D) continents become larger.

Where are erosion rates high? (A) areas of low relief, (B) tectonically active areas, (C) all subduction zones, or (D) the craton.

What was William Morris Davis's contribution to the theory of landscape evolution? (A) cycle of erosion, (B) theory of glaciation, (C) concept of grade, (D) the concept of dynamic equilibrium.

Where do earthquakes of Richter magnitude 8 or higher occur? (A) at the interface between two plates, (B) within plates, (C) only at hot spots, or (D) rocks on earth are not strong enough to allow the stresses to build to the point where Richter magnitude 8 earthquakes are possible.

The plate tectonic paradigm indicates that granitic plutons develop at (A) convergent oceanic-oceanic plate margins, (B) divergent oceanic-oceanic plate margins, (C) convergent continental-continental plate margins, or (D) divergent continental-continental plate margins

The plate tectonic paradigm indicates that pillow basalts develop at (A) convergent oceanic-oceanic plate margins, (B) divergent oceanic-oceanic plate margins, (C) convergent continental-continental plate margins, or (D) divergent continental-continental plate margins

The plate tectonic paradigm indicates that andesite volcanoes in island arcs develop at (A) convergent oceanic-oceanic plate margins, (B) divergent oceanic-oceanic plate margins, (C) convergent continental-continental plate margins, or (D) divergent continental-continental plate margins

When making a cross-section of a large area (such as the sea-floor topography under an ocean) what must be used to show contrast or detail? (A) identical vertical and horizontal scales, (B) horizontal exagger-ation, (C) vertical exaggeration, or (D) data from Project FAMOUS.

What happens during periods of little plate motion? (A) a prominent mid-ocean ridge develops, (B) sea levels fall, (C) subduction increases, or (D) continents become smaller.

The Vine-Matthews hypothesis concerns (A) sea-floor spreading, (B) the fit of the continents, (C) the angle of thrust faults during orogeny, or (D) seismic sea waves.

A region within a mountain belt that has a geology that is markedly different than that of neighboring rocks is called (A) a suspect terrane, (B) a COCORP, (C) a craton, or (D) a Bouguer anomaly.

Excluding subduction zones, earthquakes are limited to (A) the asthenosphere, (B) the Moho, (C) the lithosphere, or (D) granite.

A guyot is a variety of (A) seamount, (B) reef, (C) submersible research vessel, or (D) graben.

What crustal conditions would you expect to exist near a spreading center? (A) compression, (B) tension, (C) shear, or (D) subduction.

Where would the hottest rocks occur (A) spreading centers, (B) in trenches, (C) continental shelves, or (D) abyssal plains.

American geologists hesitated to accept the theory of continental drift because (A) rock types on either side of the Atlantic in Africa and South America are totally dissimilar (B) Glossopteris fossils occur in Africa, South America, Australia, Antarctica, and India (C) continents actually don't fit together well, or (D) the original mechanism proposed for continent movement was unacceptable to geophysicists.

Which feature is considered a plate boundary? (A) thrust fault, (B) transfer fault, (C) transform fault, or (D) continental slope.

Where is new crustal material created? (A) spread centers, (B) trenches, (C) abyssal plains, or (D) fracture zones.

The Benioff Zone is marked by (A) deep-focus earthquakes, (B) Bouger anomalies, (C) spreading of two plates away from a central rift valley, or (D) the breakdown of feldspars.

The theory of continental drift was first proposed by, (A) C. Benioff, (B) American geophysicists, (C) N.L. Bowen, or (D) A. Wegener.

The slight thrusting of a craton under an adjacent magmatic arc creates (A) a new trench, (B) a backarc thrust belt and a backarc basin (C) a forearc basin, or (D) a subduction complex.

The oldest known rocks on the earth have been discovered (A) on the mid-ocean ridges, (B) in the abyssal plains, (C) the continental rise, or (D) on the continents.

The oldest sedimentary rocks under the deep sea floor are found (A) near the spreading centers, (B) in the middle of the abyssal plains (C) along the edges of the oceans, or (D) sediments under the sea floor are all essentially the same age.

The oldest rocks on the deep-sea floor are about (A) 20 million years old, (B) 200 million years old, (C) 2 billion years old, or (D) 200 billion years old.

What is the longest physical feature on the earth? (A) the Himalayas, (B) the Marianas Trench, (C) Mauna Loa, or (D) the mid-ocean ridges.

Which is not a plate margin? (A) trench, (B) hot spot, (C) transform fault, or (D) mid-ocean ridge.

What is the approximate age of the oldest oceanic crust? (A) 4.55 billion years, (B) 65 million years, (C) 23.5 million years, or (D) 185 million years.

If the relative rates of convergence is 10 cm/year, how long will it take for a seamount on the subducted plate that is 250 km from the trench to be subducted? (A) 25 million years, (B) 250,000 years, 2.5 million years, or (D) 250 million years.

Which is not a plate margin? (A) trench, (B) transform fault, (C) mid-ocean ridge, or (D) hot spot.

If the earth were colder and all of the world's water was frozen solid, then (A) oceanic ice would be subducted into the mantle, (B) oceanic ice would be subducted to a shallow depth before melting, returning to the surface forming island arcs composed of ice, (C) oceanic ice would accrete onto continental margins, or (D) both B and C are possible.

The Caribbean, Aleutian and Japanese Islands are (A) seamounts, (B) island arcs, (C) oceanic ridges, or (D) continental shelves.

Hot spots are believed to mark sites of (A) plumes in the mantle, (B) subduction, (C) ophiolite development, or (D) weathering feldspars.

Mafic rocks form in abundance at (A) magmatic arcs, (B) spreading centers, (C) convergent plate boundaries, or (D) none of the above.

Mafic rocks form in abundance at (A) magmatic arcs, (B) subduction zones, (C) divergent plate boundaries, or (D) all of the above.

Which feature underlies the deepest parts of the oceans? (A) continental shelf, (B) abyssal plain, (C) guyots, or (D) trenches.

Which is not a feature of ocean basins? (A) trench, (B) continental slope, (C) continental ridge, or (D) abyssal plain.

Where do shallow-focus earthquakes occur? (A) above 100 km depth, (B) only in Benioff zones, (C) in rocks that do not experience elastic rebound, or (D) all of the above.

Plates (A) can increase in size, (B) can decrease in size, (C) can both increase and decrease in size, or (D) never change in size.

Shallow-focus earthquakes are associated with (A) trenches, (B) transform faults, (C) oceanic ridges, (D) all plate margins.

Where do deep-focus earthquakes occur? (A) below 100 km depth, (B) in Benioff zones, (C) in rocks that experience elastic rebound, or (D) all of the above.

The Benioff Zone is (A) a magmatic arc, (B) seismically active, (C) seismically quiet, or (D) a coating of high-Na plagioclase feldspar surrounding a nucleus of high-Ca plagioclase feldspar.

Deep-focus earthquakes are associated with (A) trenches, (B) transform faults, (C) oceanic ridges, or (D) all plate margins.

One example of a mountain range formed by a collision of continents is the (A) Andes, (B) Tethys, (C) Himalayas, or (D) Cascade Range.

Oceanic fracture zones are associated with old (A) normal faults, (B) reverse faults, (C) thrust faults, or (D) transform faults.

The footwall moves down relative to the headwall in (A) normal faults, (B) reverse faults, (C) strike-slip faults, or (D) transform faults.

What happens to ancient beach deposits in and area where huge amounts of sediment are deposited? (A) the are buried but remain at the same level, (B) the beaches rebound isostatically to higher levels, (C) the beaches are isostatically depressed to lower levels, where they may be buried under sediment, or (D) I thought I signed up for Geography 8.

What is likely to occur along a continent-continent plate convergence? (A) development of an island arc, (B) construction of great mountains, followed by changes in movement for one of the original plates, (C) subduction of one continent into the asthenophere, or (D) opening of an ocean basin, followed by volcanism.

According to your text, which is the "failed rift" associated with a mantle plume? (A) Red Sea, (B) Gulf of Aden, (C) the African Rift Valley, or (D) the Arabian Rift.

Which of the following is a typical sea-floor spreading rate? (A) 0.02 to 0.1 mm/year, (B) 2.0 to 20.0 cm/year, (C) 2.0 to 20.0 m/year, or (D) 2.0 to 20.0 km/year.

Who first noted that the outlines of South America and Africa "fit together"? (A) Bacon, (B) Wegener, (C) Benioff, or (D) Aristotle.

Paleozoic glaciation, similar fossil assemblages, similar rock types, and other evidence support the hypothesis of (A) sea-floor spreading, (B) continental drift, (C) mantle plumes, or (D) liquid outer core.

American geophysicists objected to the hypothesis of continental drift until (A) Aristotle noted the fit of the continents, (B) Glossopteris fossils were discovered in Antarctica, (C) Paleomagnetism showed polar wandering, or (D) the mechanism of sea-floor spreading was documented.

Where do andesites form? (A) magmatic arcs, (B) spreading centers, (C) abyssal plains, or (D) continental shelves.

Where do pillow basalts form? (A) magmatic arcs, (B) spreading centers, (C) abyssal plains, or (D) continental shelves.

Which sedimentary environment doesn't match the sediment type that follows? (A) shelf: carbonates, (B) continental rise: turbidites, (C) abyssal plain: breccia, or (D) floodplain: sand and silt.

Where are clays the most common sediment? (A) magmatic arcs, (B) spreading centers, (C) abyssal plains, or (D) continental shelves.

What is an ophiolite? (A) a remnant of oceanic crust characterized by radiolarian chert, pillow basalts, basalt dikes, and gabbro, (B) a complex suite of rocks, including granitic batholiths and arkosic conglomerates, formed in an area of normal faulting, (C) a deformed sequence of greywacke and volcanic rocks that accumulated near island arcs, or (D) a parcel of continental crust characterized by pegmatites, migmatites, and boudinage.

Why are lithospheric plates mobile? (A) they plough through ocean basins, (B) convection in the mantle, (C) plates sinking because cooling has lowered their density, or (D) they are made of magma under compression.

The earth's geothermal gradient is (A) constant from the crust to the core, (B) higher in the crust than in the mantle, (C) lower in the crust than in the mantle, or (D) the same as atmospheric pressure.

Where is an orogeny taking place now? (A) eastern North America, (B) India, Pakistan and Tibet, (C) in the center of the Pacific Ocean, or (D) the highlands of West Virginia.

Which metamorphic facies are likely to be associated with volcanic- plutonic complexes? (A) zeolite, greenschist, amphibolite, & granulite, (B) zeolite, prehnite-pumpellyite, blueschist, & eclogite, (C) zeolite & hornfels, or (D) eclogite, amphibolite, & granulite.

Where is an orogeny most likely taking place at present? (A) eastern North America, (B) the west coast of South America, (C) in the center of North America, or (D) the Ridge and Valley province of Virginia and West Virginia.

The stable interior of continents is called the (A) klingon, (B) craton, (C) pluton, or (D) eugeosyncline.

Where is an orogeny most likely taking place at present? (A) eastern South America, (B) the west coast of North America, (C) in the center of the Pacific Ocean, or (D) the highlands of West Virginia.

Recent work in the Pacific Ocean has shown that if an island arc forms a short distance away from a continent, it may eventually move farther away from the continent by a process know as (A) sea-floor spreading, (B) continental drift, (C) subduction, or (D) backarc spreading.

Where andesite and diorites the dominant rock types? (A) only in the Andes Mountains, (B) at spread centers, (C) in the craton, (D) along magmatic arcs.

What is a craton? (A) the stable interior of a continent, (B) the highest area in a continent-continent convergence, (C) the deepest part of the oceans, or (D) a very primitive seismologist.

Which of the following is a major lithospheric plate? (A) Arctic plate, (B) San Andreas plate, (C) Pacific plate, or (D) Indian-South American plate.

Which influences global sea-levels? (A) sea-floor spreading rates, (B) glaciation, (C) both sea-floor spreading rates and glaciation, or (D) neither sea-floor spreading rates nor glaciation.

Continental interiors that have been structurally stable for a long time are called (A) eugeosynclines, (B) miogeoclines, (C) microcontinents, or (D) cratons.

Which of the following resources can be extracted from the deep sea floor? (A) manganese nodules, (B) black sands, (C) oil and gas, or (D) phosphorite.

Great masses of sediment-laden water pulled downslope because of gravity are called (A) contour currents, (B) contourites (C) turbidity currents, or (D) turbidites.

In which part of the earth is it possible for earthquakes to occur? (A) inner core, (B) outer core, (C) subducted oceanic plate, or (D) near the core-mantle boundary

Which of the following does not offer evidence for the plate tectonic paradigm? (A) an iridium layer, (B) evolutionary similarity between continents, (C) glacial striations, or (D) paleomagnetic stripes in the ocean floor.

The evidence supporting continental drift includes all of the following except (A) an iridium layer, (B) evolutionary divergence, (C) glacial striations, or (D) "polar wandering".

The Aleutian Islands, Japan, and the Cascade Range are all magmatic arcs formed on (A) stable interior of an oceanic plate, (B) an over-riding plate, (C) a subducted plate, or (D) an interior craton.

Small fragments of crust that are too buoyant to be subducted are likely to become (A) magmatic arcs, (B) cratons, (C) bolides, or (D) terranes.

Which orogeny occurred first? (A) Taconic, (B) Acadian, (C) Grenville, or (D) Proto-Atlantic.

The Grenville Orogeny was (A) a collision of continents, (B) the opening of an ocean basin, (C) a period of erosion, or (D) the last earthquake in eastern U.S.A..

Which is the earliest orogeny recorded in rocks of the Appalachians? (A) Taconic, (B) Acadian, (C) Cordilleran, or (D) Grenville.

In which physiographic province can one find rocks formed during the Grenville Orogeny? (A) Appalachian Plateau, (B) Blue Ridge, (C) Valley and Ridge, or (D) Atlantic Coastal Plain.

Where can one find dinosaur tracks? (A) upper strata in the Appalachian Plateau, (B) fault basins in the Blue Ridge, (C) folded rocks in the Valley and Ridge, or (D) fault basins of the Piedmont.

Which is the most recent orogeny recorded in rocks of the Appalachian Mountains? (A) Taconic, (B) Acadian, (C) Cordilleran, or (D) Grenville.

What are the maximum estimates of the former maximum heights (above sea level) of the ancient Appalachian Mountains? (A) 4000-5000 feet, (B) 5000-10,000 feet, (C) 10,000 to 20,000 feet, or (D) 30,000 or more feet.

When did normal faults and flood basalts develop in the rocks of the Appalachian Mountains? (A) closing of the proto-Atlantic Ocean, (B) opening of the proto-Atlantic Ocean, (C) Acadian Orogeny, or (D) Taconic Orogeny.

Flood basalts and normal faults formed during (A) early stages of the opening of the Proto-Atlantic and Atlantic Oceans, (B) the Acadian Orogeny, (C) the Grenville Orogeny, or (D) periods of erosion.

Which is not a physiographic province in the eastern United States? (A) The Blue Ridge, (B) The Piedmont, (C) The Appalachian Plateau, or (D) The Green Mountains.

Which best describes the geologic structure of the Valley and Ridge Province in the Appalachian Mountains? (A) anticlines and synclines that extend down to the upper mantle, (B) normal faults and grabens, (C) folds associated with thrust faults, or (D) flood basalts and other tensional features.

Where on earth is the Coriolis most effective? (A) the poles, (B) 45 degrees N, (C) 45 degrees S, or (D) the Equator.

Where would you expect the earth's gravitational pull to be least? (A) over a granite pluton, (B) over a diorite pluton, (C) over a gabbro pluton, or (D) over a peridotite laccolith.

The difference between the magnetic pole and the geographic pole is called (A) magnetic declination, (B) polar wandering, (C) paleomagnetism, or (D) isostatic declivity.

Which rock would probably give a positive Bouger anomaly? (A) andesite, (B) basalt, (C) granite, or (D) sandstone.

Which rock would probably give a positive gravity anomaly? (A) andesite, (B) basalt, (C) granite, or (D) sandstone.

The difference between magnetic north and true north is called the magnetic (A) field, (B) rebound, (C) declination, or (D) discontinuity.

The force of gravitational attraction between two objects is a function of (A) mass of the objects and distance, (B) distance only, (C) mass only, or (D) weight of the smaller object.

Which best describes the earth's magnetic field? (A) It is constant. (B) It may reverse polarity. (C) It is formed in the crust. (D) It is usually studied by examination of Bouger anomalies.

Bouger anomalies are revealed by (A) magnetic field studies, (B) gravity studies, (C) remnant magnetism, or (D) seismic studies.

A Bouguer anomaly is a deviation from the predicted value of (A) paleomagnetism, (B) the modern magnetic field, (C) magnetic declination, or (D) gravity.

How many stars in the Milky Way Galaxy? (A) 1, (B) 9, (C) 400,000,000,000, or (D) 1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000

How many stars in the Universe? (A) 40,000,000,000,000,000,000,000, (B) 40,000,000,000, (C) 40,000,000, or (D) 1,000,000,000,000,000,000.

How wide is the Milky Way Galaxy? (A) 1,000 km, (B) 1,000,000 km 1,000,000,000 km, or (D) 1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 km.

How many planetary bodies are known to host intelligent life? (A) none, (B) one, (C) 9, or (D) 40,000,000,000,000,000,000,000.

What event is show on the first and only (and last for the semester) slide? (A) Volcanic eruption on Mars, (B) Solar flare, (C) Volcanic eruption on Venus, or (D) Volcanic eruption on Io.

How old is the surface landscape shown on the third slide? (A) much older than the Earth, (B) younger than the Earth, (C) about the same as the earth, or (D) none of the above, because these are images of the Earth's surface.

The slide shows pellets and disks composed of glass that were created by (A) melting of radioactive wastes, (B) volcanic eruption, (C) precipitation from dissolved solids in wells, or (D) meteorite impact.

The slide shows pellets and disks composed of glass that were created by meteorite impact. What are the called? (A) chondrules, (B) chondrites, (C) achondrites, or (D) tektites.

Which of the following is know to have a multiplate tectonic system? (A) Mars, (B) Mercury, (C) Earth, or (D) Jupiter.

Which of the following may have a multiplate tectonic system? (A) Mars, (B) the Earth's moon, (C) Venus, or (D) Saturn.

Which planetary body has the oldest surface? (A) the Earth's moon, (B) Mars, (C) Earth, or (D) Io.

Which planetary body has the youngest surface? (A) the Earth's moon, (B) Mars, (C) Earth, or (D) Io.

Which planetary body has an atmosphere that includes orange smog that shrouds the surface from view? (A) Mercury, (B) Mars, (C) Ganymede, or (D) Titan.

Which planetary body is thought to have continents of ice and oceans of liquid hydrocarbons? (A) Io, (B) Mars, (C) Ganymede, or (D) Titan.

Which moon of Jupiter has the thickest ice cover? (A) Io, (B) Europa, (C) Ganymede, or (D) Callisto.

Are volcanoes active on Mars today? (A) Yes; (B) No, but they have been in the past; (C) No, and they have never been; or (D) This intriguing question cannot be answered exactly.

What was the last stage in the Moon's history? (A) accretion, (B) magma ocean, (C) mare flood basalts, or (D) catastrophic floods.

What was the first stage in the Moon's history? (A) accretion, (B) magma ocean, (C) mare flood basalts, or (D) catastrophic floods.

What was the probable first stage in the Earth's history? (A) accretion, (B) magma ocean, (C) mare flood basalts, or (D) catastrophic floods.

Which planetary body has numerous sulfur-silicate volcanoes? (A) Mars, (B) Pluto, (C) Jupiter, or (D) Io.

Which planetary body is mostly gas? (A) Mars, (B) Pluto, (C) Jupiter, or (D) Io.

Which planetary body is mostly rock? (A) Mercury, (B) Saturn, (C) Jupiter, or (D) Uranus.

Which planetary body is mostly rock? (A) Venus, (B) Saturn, (C) Jupiter, or (D) Neptune.

Which planetary body is mostly rock? (A) Saturn, (B) Neptune, (C) Venus, or (D) Jupiter.

Which of the following is not considered a Jovian planet? (A) Jupiter, (B) Saturn, (C) Mars, or (D) all of these three examples are Jovian planets.

Jupiter and Saturn consist primarily of (A) rings, (B) rocky material, (C) stony-iron meteorites, or (D) gasses.

Why doesn't Venus have a magnetic field? (A) It's too close to the Sun; (B) It's too old; (C) It lacks an iron-rich core; or (D) It rotates too slowly.

Which of the following is a terrestrial planet? (A) Jupiter, (B) Saturn, (B) (C) Neptune, or (D) Mars.

What features have been identified on the Martian surface? (A) canyons, (B) volcanos, (C) craters, or (D) all of the above features.

A typical Jovian planet has (A) a silicate crust, (B) sulfur oceans beneath a sulfur aquifer, (C) a dense atmosphere of hydrogen, methane, and other gasses, or (D) surface temperature of 10,000 degrees F.

The largest planet in the solar system is (A) Venus, (B) Earth, (C) Jupiter, or (D) none of the above.

Generally, the oldest surface occurs on (A) Mercury, (B) Earth, (C) Mars, (B) or (D) Io.

Generally, the youngest surface occurs on (A) Mercury, (B) Earth, (C) Mars, or (D) Io.

The lunar highlands are characterized by (A) anorthosites, breccias, and many impact craters, (B) flood basalts and few impact craters, (C) the largest active volcanos in the solar system, or (D) none of the above.

Lunar mare (or maria) are characterized by (A) anorthosites, breccias, and many impact craters, (B) flood basalts and few impact craters, (C) the largest active volcanos in the solar system, or (D) none of the above.

In which of the following aspects is Mars most like Earth? (A) both show evidence of stream erosion, (B) amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide, (C) presence of linear mountain ranges, or (D) amount of meteorite impact craters.

In which of the following aspects is Venus most like Earth? (A) the existence of ice at the surface, (B) amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide, (C) presence of continents, or (D) surface temperatures.

Evidence from the moon shows that many meteorites existed during the early history of our solar system. What happened to most of these meteorites? (A) They accreted to form planets. (B) They now lie in the asteroid belt. (C) They now lie in Saturn's rings. (D) They have transmogrified into comets.

Where would you expect to find chondrules? (A) Mississippian sediments, (B) cones of depression, (C) achondrites, or (D) chondrites.

Which of the following are rather common in the earth's core and in meteorites? (A) nitrogen and neon, (B) silicon and gold, (C) silica and sulfur, or (D) iron and nickel.

Which planet other than the earth is thought to have tectonism in its lithosphere? (A) Jupiter, (B) all Jovian planets, (C) Mercury, or (D) Venus.

Which planet has the largest core relative to planet size? (A) Mars, (B) Earth, (C) Venus, or (D) Mercury.

According to your text book, which is the best candidate for terraforming? A. Venus, B. Io, C. Mercury, or D. Mars

Your text states that construction of factories would be the first step in terraforming. What would the factories produce as their primary product? A. Steam Heat B. Mobile Homes, C, Greenhouse gasses, or D. Solar Energy Cells.

Which of the following best describes Jupiter? A. It has twice the mass of all other planets combined. B. It gives off twice as much energy as it receives from the Sun. C. It has many moons D. All of the above.

Which Planetary body appears to have oceans of liquid hydrocarbons and continents of ice? A. Io, B. Callisto, C. Titan, or D. Mars

Which planetary body has the greatest number of impact craters? A. Io, B. Earth, C. Europa or D. Callisto.

Which planetary body has the least number of impact craters? A. Io, B. Earth, C. Europa or D. Callisto.

Which Planetary body is know to have Plate Tectonics? A. Earth, B. (Earth’s) Moon, C. Saturn, D. Io.

Why doesn’t Mars have oceans today? A. Icy comets do not impact planets beyond Earth. B. Water vapor has outgassed in volcanic eruptions. C. Glaciers have tied up a volume of water equal to the oceans on Earth. D. Water and carbon dioxide are locked up in clays and carbonate minerals and not recycled by plate tectonics.

What does the enormous size of Olympus Mons indicate about Mars? A. The lithosphere is too thick and rigid to allow rapid isostatic depression. B. Plate tectonics is very active C. No long-lived magma sources are present in the planet’s interior, or D. all of the above.]

According to your text, how did Valles Marineras form? A. Normal faulting due to uplift or collapse of a magma chamber, B. catastrophic stream flow, C. uniformitarian stream flow, or D, deep scour by continental glaciers.

Where would we go to take a field trip to the largest impact structure in the Solar System? A. Io, B. Earth’s Moon, C. Mercury, or D. Mars.

What was the first event in the Moon’s history? A. Crystalization of a magma ocean B. Extrusion of Mare Basalts, C. Cessation of bolide impacts, or D. Subduction and Magmatic Arc Volcanism.

Crude oil can be refined into (A) diesel fuel, (B) petrochemicals, (C) kerosene, or (D) all of these.

Which earth resources might occur in or near a salt dome? (A) salt, (B) sulfur, (C) oil, or (D) all of the above resources.

Who came up with the idea of the anticlinal trap? (A) M. King Hubbert, (B) Aldous Huxley, (C) I. C. White, or (D) Terry Bowden.

What are some of the bad effects of converting from oil-fired to coal-fired generation of electricity? (A) use of coal makes us dependent on foreign coal supplies, (B) coal is more expensive, (C) we have less coal than we have petroleum, or (D) burning coal may cause acid rain.

Which resource commonly is extracted from hydrothermal deposits? (A) silver, (B) natural gas, (C) aluminum, or (D) gravel.

Before the Arab oil embargo (1973-1974) U.S. petroleum consumption doubled every (A) 100 years, (B) 53 years, (C) 10 years, or (D) 2 years.

Who predicted a decline in U.S. petroleum production between 1966-1971? (A) M. King Hubbert, (B) Aldous Huxley, (C) I.C. White, or (D) H. King.

The amount of petroleum that is in the ground, even though it may not now be economical to pump it out is known as (A) the petroleum reserve, (B) the petroleum resource, (C) the petroleum production, (D) none of the above.

The amount of petroleum that can be economically recovered is called (A) the petroleum reserve, (B) the petroleum resource, (C) the petroleum production, (D) none of the above.

Which best describes petroleum? (A) a non-renewable resource, (B) a renewable resource that is consumed faster than it is produced, (C) a renewable resource that is consumed slower than it is produced, or (D) none of the above

NIMBY stands for (A) a Soviet nuclear regulatory responsible for the Chernobyl accident, (B) a nickel-molybdenum ore, (C) a nickel-molybdenum mineral found only in meteorites, or (D) "not in my backyard"?

Where have high-level nuclear wastes been successfully stored? (A) halite (rock salt) in Germany, (B) volcanoc tuffs in the USA, (C) granite plutons in Sweeden, or (D) all of these rock types have been studied, but no high-level nuclear wastes have been put in long term storage facilities anywhere in the world.

Which of the following best describes the outlook for the coal industry in West Virginia? (A) Coal production will increase, so coal industry employment will increase; (B) The Clean Air Act of 1990 will decrease U.S. consumption of foreign oil and increase of coal from northern West Virginia; (C) Declining prices associated with decreased worldwide energy demand will make West Virginia coal too expensive to mine profitably; or (D) The Clean Air Act of 1990 will discourage consumption of high-sulfur coal from northern West Virginia.

Pure natural gas is considered a "clean" fossil fuel, but it's combustion (burning) does add great quantities of one of the following to our atmosphere: (A) carbon dioxide, (B) ozone, (C) sulfur dioxide, or (D) arsenic.

Data from rural weather stations and satellites show the following temperature trend in the 20th century. (A) cooling, (B) slow warming, (C) rapid warming, or (D) no change.

Data from urban weather stations show the following temperature trend in the 20th century. (A) cooling, (B) warming because of the greenhouse effect, (C) warming because of the heat island effect, or (D) no change.

What is needed for hydrocarbons to be preserved in "economic" quantities? (A) ground-water, aquifers and aquicludes; (B) source rock, anticlines, and traps; (C) ground-water, traps and reservoir rocks, or (D) source rocks, reservoir rocks and traps.

What makes the best hydrocarbon trap? (A) unconfined ground-water aquifers; (B) anticlines, (C) source rocks, (D) surface karst landscapes.

Which is not an important product from the burning of Appalachian bituminous coal (A) carbon dioxide, (B) sulfur dioxide, (C) acid rain, or (D) methane gas.

Which fuel is pollution-free? (A) coal, (B) petroleum and natural gas, (C) nuclear fission, (D) none of the above.

The amount of silver that can be economically recovered is called (A) the silver reserve, (B) the silver resource, (C) the silver production, (D) none of the above.

Where does high-sulfur coal occur? (A) northern West Virginia, (B) southern West Virginia, (C) Maine, or (D) Wyoming.

The Clean Air Act passed by the U.S. Senate in 1990 will have greatest impact on (A) all coal-fired power plants, (B) coal-fired power plants that have high methane emissions, (C) coal-fired power plants that have high sulfur dioxide emissions, or (D) coal-fired power plants that have high carbon dioxide emissions.

Which is the most immediate problem created by underground mining of coal in the United States. (A) rapid depletion of reserves, (B) acidification of streams, (C) acidification of precipitation, or (D) global warming.

The number of coal miners employed in West Virginia has dropped from about 55,000 in 1978 to about 20,000 in 1995. Why? (A) the low BTU of West Virginia coal, (B) the Clean Air Act, (C) low productivity by the miners, or (D) mechanization and use of new technology in mining.

What is the importance of ozone in the upper atmosphere? (A) blocks out dangerous ultraviolet radiation, (B) it breaks down chloro-fluorocarbons, (C) it contributes to the greenhouse effect, (D) it can reduce the trend in global warming.

Which is a greenhouse gas? (A) carbon dioxide, (B) sulfur dioxide, (C) dioxin, or (D) ozone.

Which is not a greenhouse gas? (A) carbon dioxide, (B) water vapor, (C) methane, or (D) ozone.

Which of the following supplies most of the U.S. energy needs? (A) oil, (B) natural gas, (C) coal, or (D) nuclear power.

Which energy source has the greatest unused potential? (A) natural gas, (B) coal, (C) hydropower, or (D) solar.

A porous, permeable rock that is capped by an impermeable rock, and contains oil may be called (A) source rock, (B) reservoir rock, (C) tap rock, or (D) wildcat rock.

Which of the following ancient water bodies is based on evidence from West Virginia? (A) Lake Monongahela, (B) Teays River, (C) Pittsburgh River, or (D) all three of these water bodies.

Clays and silts in low-lying areas of Morgantown's Evansdale neighborhood owe their origin to (A) direct deposition by a glacier, (B) deposition as glacial outwash, (C) deposition in a glacier dammed lake, or (D) waste from the old pottery works in Morgantown.

How old are the deposits of Lake Monongahela? (A) less than 10,000 years, (B) about 100,000 years, (C) about 280,000,000 years, or (D) older than the last reversal of the earth's magnetic field.

Who was the first to recogize ancient Lake Monongahela? (A) M. King Hubbert, (B) Aldous Huxley, (C) I. C. White, or (D) Bob Huggins.